1. Refer to the 2016 Reports of Independent Auditors of Unilever N.V. and Unilever PLC. Required: Identify the features in the above audit report that are unique to an MNC.

The correct statements in regard to predatory pricing to induce exit of existing rival firms are as follows:

b. With this pricing strategy, the predator firm lowers price below cost until the rival exits the market, at which point the predator will raise price to the monopoly level.

c. With this pricing strategy, the predator firm sets a low price even before entry that discourages any potential rivals from entering the market.

d. If there is free entry back into the market, this type of predatory pricing may not be feasible.

Predatory pricing is defined as a pricing strategy in which a company lowers the price of a product or service below its cost of production to drive out competitors.

The aim of predatory pricing is to eliminate competition by driving existing competitors out of the market. The predator firm is attempting to achieve a monopoly by pushing rivals out of the market so that it can raise its prices above competitive levels and maintain high profits.

The statements in regard to predatory pricing to induce exit of existing rival firms that are correct are:

b. With this pricing strategy, the predator firm lowers price below cost until the rival exits the market, at which point the predator will raise price to the monopoly level.

c. With this pricing strategy, the predator firm sets a low price even before entry that discourages any potential rivals from entering the market.

d. If there is free entry back into the market, this type of predatory pricing may not be feasible.

To know more about predatory visit:

https://brainly.com/question/12751629

#SPJ11

c) bid rigging.. occurs when sellers agree informally or formally to set floor prices below which they will not sell on auction items.

c) bid rigging occurs when sellers agree informally or formally to set floor prices below which they will not sell on auction items.

bid rigging is an illegal practice in which competitors collude to manipulate the bidding process in order to maintain higher prices and reduce competition. it typically involves sellers conspiring to establish minimum prices (floor prices) for auction items, ensuring that the final bids do not fall below these predetermined levels.

by setting floor prices, the sellers eliminate the possibility of genuine competitive bidding, artificially inflate prices, and restrict the ability of buyers to obtain goods or services at lower prices. this anti-competitive behavior harms the market by reducing consumer choice and limiting price competition.

the other s are not directly related to bid rigging:

a) discriminatory pricing refers to pricing strategies where sellers charge different prices to different customers based on factors such as location, demographics, or purchasing power.

Learn more about Customer here:

https://brainly.com/question/31192428

#SPJ11

To record the debt being written off in Vini's accounts, the appropriate journal entry would be:

Debit Bad debts RM110

Credit Ali RM110

The negative sign indicates a loss on disposal, and the amount is RM24,000. Therefore, the correct answer is D. RM24,000 Debit.

To record the debt being written off in Vini's accounts, the appropriate journal entry would be:

Debit Bad debts RM110

Credit Ali RM110

This entry reflects the recognition of bad debt expense and the reduction in the accounts receivable balance. By debiting the Bad debts account, Vini acknowledges the amount of debt that is deemed uncollectible. The credit to the Ali account represents the reduction in the accounts receivable from Kelvin.

To calculate the gain/loss on disposal, we need to follow these steps:

Step 1: Calculate the accumulated depreciation:

Depreciation per year = (Cost - Residual value) / Useful life

Depreciation per year = (RM90,000 - RM10,000) / 5 = RM16,000

Step 2: Determine the accumulated depreciation as of the disposal date:

Accumulated depreciation = Depreciation per year x Number of years

Accumulated depreciation = RM16,000 x 1 = RM16,000

Step 3: Calculate the carrying value of the asset:

Carrying value = Cost - Accumulated depreciation

Carrying value = RM90,000 - RM16,000 = RM74,000

Step 4: Calculate the gain/loss on disposal:

Gain/Loss on disposal = Cash received - Carrying value

Gain/Loss on disposal = RM50,000 - RM74,000 = -RM24,000

The negative sign indicates a loss on disposal, and the amount is RM24,000. Therefore, the correct answer is D. RM24,000 Debit.

For more such questions on debt, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/11556132

#SPJ11

The probable question oculd be:

Vini was owed RM200 by a debtor, Kelvin. However, Kelvin was declared bankrupt. Vini later received information that meant that he would receive a payment of 45% of any outstanding debts owed to him by Kelvin. How should Vini record the debt being written off in his accounts?

A. Dr Profit & Loss RM90, Cr Bank RM90

B. Dr Ali RM110, Cr Bad debts RM110

C. Dr Bad debts RM110, Cr Ali RM110

D. Dr Bank RM90, Cr Profit & Loss RM90

3. Calculate gain/loss on disposal

Cost: RM90,000 (1 April 2020)

Depreciation: 20% straight line

Residual value: RM10,000

Disposal date: 31 December 2020

Cash received: RM50,000

A. RM24,000 Credit

B. RM28,000 Debit

C. RM28,000 Credit

D. RM24,000 Debit

Tom's most advantageous filing status for 2022 is Single. Answer: b. FalseTom can potentially qualify for the Head of Household filing status.

To qualify for Head of Household, Tom needs to meet the following requirements: He must be unmarried or considered unmarried on the last day of the year. He must have paid more than half the cost of keeping up a home for himself and a qualifying person (in this case, his nephew Frank). He must be eligible to claim an exemption for Frank as a dependent. Since Tom provided over half the cost of keeping up the home and provided all of Frank's support, he may qualify for the Head of Household filing status, which can be more advantageous than the Single filing status. Tom is blind and can claim a standard deduction amount of Answer: a. $12,950  For the tax year 2022, the standard deduction amount for a single individual who is blind is $12,950. Blind individuals are eligible for an additional standard deduction amount on top of the standard deduction for their filing status. Since Tom is blind, he can claim this additional deduction when determining his taxable income.

Learn more about Household filing status here:

https://brainly.com/question/29994814

#SPJ11

(A) The Bullwhip effect: Demand amplification along the supply chain.

(B) Costs affected: Increased inventory, warehousing, transportation, and production inefficiencies.

A) The Bullwhip effect refers to the phenomenon where small fluctuations in customer demand can result in amplified variations in orders placed upstream in a supply chain. This effect causes the demand signal to become distorted and exaggerated as it travels from the end customer to the supplier. I'll explain the Bullwhip effect using a graph:

In the graph, the horizontal axis represents time, while the vertical axis represents the quantity of products ordered. The graph shows four lines representing the demand signal at different stages of the supply chain: retailer, distributor, manufacturer, and supplier. Initially, customer demand (retailer) experiences small fluctuations. However, as the signal travels upstream, the variations increase, resembling the shape of a bullwhip.

B) The Bullwhip effect impacts different costs within the supply chain. These costs include:

1. **Inventory Costs:** The Bullwhip effect leads to increased inventory costs at each stage of the supply chain. Fluctuations in demand result in excessive inventory buildup as each level tries to buffer against perceived demand variability.

2. **Ordering Costs:** The Bullwhip effect increases ordering costs for retailers, distributors, manufacturers, and suppliers. Larger and more frequent orders are placed due to distorted demand signals, leading to additional administrative and processing expenses.

3. **Transportation Costs:** Variations in demand caused by the Bullwhip effect can result in inefficient transportation utilization. Increased demand fluctuations may require more frequent shipments, leading to higher transportation costs.

4. **Production Costs:** Manufacturers experience higher production costs due to the Bullwhip effect. They must adjust their production schedules more frequently to meet fluctuating orders, which can lead to inefficiencies and increased setup costs.

5. **Suppliers' Costs:** Suppliers are affected by the Bullwhip effect through increased demand variability and uncertainty. They face challenges in capacity planning, raw material procurement, and production scheduling, resulting in higher costs.

Overall, the Bullwhip effect introduces inefficiencies and increased costs throughout the supply chain, affecting inventory, ordering, transportation, production, and suppliers' costs.

learn more about "inventory":- https://brainly.com/question/26977216

#SPJ11

1. Discounted loan rate on interim loan, discounted loan rate on advanced loan, and ve rate versus LIBOR are all terms that can be found in the given scenario.Given the information given, it's impossible to determine what type of loan the firm is receiving. 

The company may take out a loan with a discounted rate of 8% in the interim to cover its needs. It could also receive a loan with a 9 percent discount if it pays it back in full. The company's ve rate is the interest rate it is charged when it borrows funds, while the LIBOR is the rate at which banks lend money to one another.2. Yes, the company should take the cash discount offer as it is beneficial in this scenario.

The cost of borrowing funds from the bank is 11%. The terms of the cash discount are 2/15, net 60. Therefore, the company will get a 2% discount if they pay within 15 days. They will be able to borrow funds for 60 days. In other words, they will pay an effective annual rate of 12.36% to borrow funds for 45 days. As a result, the company should take advantage of the cash discount and borrow the funds.3. Yes, the company should take the cash discount offer as it is beneficial in this scenario.The company's borrowing cost is 12%. The terms of the cash discount are 1.5/10, net 60. The company will receive a 1.5% discount if they pay within 10 days. They will be able to borrow funds for 60 days. In other words, they will pay an effective annual rate of 12.36% to borrow funds for 50 days. As a result, the company should take advantage of the cash discount and borrow the funds.

To know more about loan visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30015539

#SPJ11

Redeemable fixed-rate notes are bonds with a predetermined maturity date, but the bond issuer can "call" or buy the bond back before it matures.

Callable bonds enable issuers to minimize interest payments while refinancing at a cheaper cost in a falling interest-rate environment. Callable bonds can be traded at a premium to their face value when interest rates fall and at a discount when interest rates rise. Callable bonds are beneficial to the issuer because they have the right but not the obligation to pay the bond off early when the interest rate decreases.

It would have been possible for Home and Office City Inc. to redeem ("call") these notes for an amount below face value (at a discount). Circumstances that would have been most likely to prompt Home and Office City to redeem these notes are as follows:

To know more about predetermined visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/13784480

#SPJ11

2.  it will take approximately 3.82 years for the balance to grow to $15,000. 3.  the future value of $20,000 after 12 years with monthly compounding at 1.6% interest is approximately $19,666.

Question 2: To calculate the time it takes for the balance to grow to $15,000, we can use the formula for compound interest:

Future Value = Principal * (1 + Interest Rate)^Time

In this case, the principal is $13,000, the future value is $15,000, and the interest rate is 1.4%.

$15,000 = $13,000 * (1 + 0.014)^Time

Dividing both sides by $13,000, we get:

1.1538 = (1 + 0.014)^Time

Taking the logarithm of both sides, we have:

log(1.1538) = Time * log(1.014)

Time = log(1.1538) / log(1.014)

Using a calculator, we find:

Time ≈ 3.82 years

Therefore, it will take approximately 3.82 years for the balance to grow to $15,000.

Question 3: To calculate the future value of $20,000 after 12 years with monthly compounding at an interest rate of 1.6%, we can use the formula:

Future Value = Principal * (1 + Interest Rate / Number of Compounding Periods)^(Number of Compounding Periods * Time)

In this case, the principal is $20,000, the interest rate is 1.6%, the number of compounding periods per year is 12, and the time is 12 years.

Future Value = $20,000 * (1 + 0.016 / 12)^(12 * 12)

Using a calculator, we find:

Future Value ≈ $19,666

Therefore, the future value of $20,000 after 12 years with monthly compounding at 1.6% interest is approximately $19,666.

Learn more about future value at https://brainly.com/question/24703884

#SPJ4

In equilibrium, 100 pizzas would be sold at a price of $10 per pizza.

Setting market supply and demand equally would result in equilibrium, which would determine the quantity of pizzas sold and their price. Therefore, to get the equilibrium price per pizza, we can use the following equation:

100p - 20p = Qd = Qs300 40p = 400p = 10 is the result of solving for p.Pizza's equilibrium cost is therefore $10 per pie.

By adding the equilibrium price to the market demand or market supply equation, we can now get the equilibrium number of pizzas. Use the market demand equation as an example:

Qd = 300 - 20pQd = 300 - 20(10)Qd = 300 - 200Qd = 100Pizzas must therefore be in an equilibrium quantity of 100. In conclusion, 100 pizzas would be sold at a price of $10 each in an equilibrium situation.

For more such questions on equilibrium

https://brainly.com/question/28945352

#SPJ8

The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) for Cyber Tires is 8.89%.

The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is a financial metric used to assess the average annual cost of capital for a company. In the case of Cyber Tires, the company plans to raise money through selling new equity, new preferred stock shares, and new debt.

The respective amounts for each source of funding are $778,000, $222,000, and $496,000. The annual costs of equity, preferred stock, and debt are 12%, 7%, and 3% respectively. Taking into account the corporate income tax bracket of 39%, the WACC calculation involves weighting the costs of each source of funding by their respective proportions and accounting for the tax implications.

By determining the WACC, Cyber Tires can assess the average annual cost associated with running its tire business and use it as a benchmark for evaluating potential investment opportunities. So the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) for Cyber Tires is 8.89%.

Learn more about  Average Cost

brainly.com/question/14415150

#SPJ11

To calculate the weight for stock 3 in the portfolio to achieve an expected portfolio return of 15%, we can use the formula mentioned earlier. Let's proceed with the calculations:

Expected portfolio return = 15%

Weight of stock 1 = 30%

Expected return of stock 1 = 8.4%

Weight of stock 2 = ?

Expected return of stock 2 = 12.1%

Weight of stock 3 = ?

Expected return of stock 3 = 18.5%

Using the formula:

15% = (30% * 8.4%) + (Weight of stock 2 * 12.1%) + (Weight of stock 3 * 18.5%)

We can rearrange the equation to solve for the weight of stock 3:

15% - (30% * 8.4%) - (Weight of stock 2 * 12.1%) = Weight of stock 3 * 18.5%

Weight of stock 3 = (15% - (30% * 8.4%) - (Weight of stock 2 * 12.1%)) / 18.5%

To know more about stock visit-

brainly.com/question/24173787

#SPJ11

A good that is neither rival nor exclusive is called a public good . Option(b) a public good.

Public goods are characterized by non-excludability, meaning that individuals cannot be easily excluded from consuming the good, and non-rivalry, meaning that one person's consumption of the good does not diminish its availability to others.

Public goods (option b) are typically provided by the government or other public entities, as private markets may fail to supply them efficiently due to free-rider problems. Examples of public goods include national defense, public parks, street lighting, and public broadcasting.

The provision of public goods is often funded through taxation or government budgets. Public goods are important for promoting societal welfare and are intended to benefit the entire population, regardless of individual contributions.

To learn more about public good refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/31433197#

#SPJ11

The Total Surplus generated in the socially optimal equilibrium is 82.5

To determine the maximum quantity that would be purchased in the private market, we need to find the quantity at which the marginal benefit (MB) equals the marginal cost (MC).

MBᴄ = MC

20 - Q = 4 + 0.25Q

Combining like terms:

1.25Q = 16

Q = 12.8

Since Q represents the quantity of plants, it cannot be a fraction. Therefore, the maximum quantity that would be purchased in the private market is 12 plants.

The socially optimal quantity to purchase is the quantity at which the total surplus is maximized. This occurs when the marginal benefit equals the marginal cost for society as a whole.

MBᴄ + MBᴊ = MC

(20 - Q) + (30 - 2Q) = 4 + 0.25Q

Combining like terms:

50 - 3Q = 4 + 0.25Q

Simplifying the equation:

3.25Q = 46

Q = 14.15

Again, since Q represents the quantity of plants, it cannot be a fraction. Therefore, the socially optimal quantity to purchase is 14 plants.

To calculate the Total Surplus generated in the private market equilibrium, we need to find the area of the consumer surplus and producer surplus.

Consumer Surplus:

The consumer surplus is the area between the demand curve and the price line at the private market equilibrium quantity.

Consumer Surplus = (1/2) * (Q * MB)

= (1/2) * (12 * (20 - 12))

= 48

Producer Surplus:

The producer surplus is the area between the supply curve and the price line at the private market equilibrium quantity.

Producer Surplus = (1/2) * (Q * MC)

= (1/2) * (12 * (4 + 0.25 * 12))

= 39

Total Surplus = Consumer Surplus + Producer Surplus

= 48 + 39

= 87

Therefore, the Total Surplus generated in the private market equilibrium is 87.

To calculate the Total Surplus generated in the socially optimal equilibrium, we need to find the area of the consumer surplus and producer surplus at the socially optimal quantity.

Consumer Surplus = (1/2) * (Q * MB)

= (1/2) * (14 * (20 - 14))

= 42

Producer Surplus = (1/2) * (Q * MC)

= (1/2) * (14 * (4 + 0.25 * 14))

= 40.5

Total Surplus = Consumer Surplus + Producer Surplus

= 42 + 40.5

= 82.5

Learn more about  marginal cost curve here-

https://brainly.com/question/24277533

#SPJ4

Tthe theoretical ex-rights share price is $1.87.Renounceable rights offer is an offer given to the shareholders that offers them to increase their stake in the company by selling their allocated rights to someone else.

Renounceable rights offer is an offer to the shareholders with the privilege of trading their rights to someone else. This offer is made with a specific time limit given to the shareholders to decide if they want to take part in the offer or not. If the shareholder does not want to take part in the offer, then he/she can trade their rights. These rights can be sold to someone else before the offer period is over, or the shareholder can simply let it expire.The offer is made to the current shareholders, who can accept or renounce the offer. A shareholder is entitled to purchase a specified number of shares at a reduced price. If a shareholder decides to renounce the offer, they have the right to sell the offer on the market, or transfer it to another person.The price of the right The right is offered at

$0.30 ($1.65 - $1.95) per share.

A shareholder is entitled to purchase 2 shares for every 6 held, therefore the shareholder will require 1 right to purchase 1 share. Therefore the price of the right is $0.30 per right.

Calculation of theoretical ex-rights share priceThe theoretical ex-rights share price (TERP) is the share price of a company that has just made a rights issue. It represents the price of a share after the rights issue, taking into account the new shares that have been issued and the proceeds from the issue.TERP is calculated using the following formula:

TERP = (n x S + P x R) / (n + R)

where:

n = the number of shares currently issued  S = the current share pricen + R = the total number of shares after the rights issue P = the issue price of the new shares R = the number of new shares issued  In this case,

n = 1000 shares  

S = $1.95n + R = 1000 + (2/6) x 1000 = 1333.33 shares

P = $1.65R = (2/6) x 1000 = 333.33 shares

TERP = (1000 x 1.95 + 1.65 x 333.33) / 1333.33= $1.87

Therefore, the theoretical ex-rights share price is $1.87.

To know more about Renounceable rights offer visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28670860

#SPJ11

The purpose of the income statement is to evaluate the past performance of the enterprise. The correct option is A: evaluate the past performance of the enterprise.

What is an Income statement? An income statement, also known as a profit and loss statement or P&L, is a financial report that measures a company's financial performance during a specific accounting period. A company's income statement displays revenue, expenses, and net income or loss for that period.

Therefore, the usefulness of the income statement is to evaluate the past performance of the enterprise by providing information on how much revenue the company has earned and how much money it has spent to produce that revenue during a specific accounting period. The income statement is used by investors and analysts to evaluate a company's financial health and profitability.

To know more about income statement refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/15169974

#SPJ11

The statement that a detailed shareholders' equity section in the balance sheet will list the names of individuals who are eligible to receive dividends on the date of record is False.

Shareholders' equity refers to the total value of a company's assets minus any debts. It represents the net value of a corporation after all of its financial obligations have been fulfilled. Shareholders' equity is one of the critical pieces of information that investors consider when deciding whether or not to purchase a corporation's shares.

The capital that shareholders have invested in the company is represented by shareholder equity. When a business is first created, shareholders invest money to get it off the ground, giving them an ownership stake. Shareholder equity is the value of this ownership stake.

The balance sheet's shareholders' equity section includes a corporation's retained earnings, common stock, and preferred stock.

Learn more about balance sheet https://brainly.com/question/28446946

#SPJ11

Tata Motors has chosen to expand into foreign markets using exports rather than local manufacturing as a primary mechanism of getting its product to new markets due to several reasons.

Firstly, exporting enables Tata Motors to increase its market reach without the need to set up production facilities in other countries. This significantly reduces their initial investment costs. Secondly, exporting enables Tata Motors to penetrate foreign markets where local manufacturers are either too expensive or too low quality.

The company has been doing this for several reasons. Exporting provides an opportunity for Tata Motors to increase its market reach without investing in production facilities in other countries. Exporting also enables the company to penetrate foreign markets where local manufacturers are either too expensive or too low quality.

Additionally, exporting allows Tata Motors to leverage its expertise in the Indian market to develop and improve its product line. This product line can be exported to other markets where the company wants to expand.

To know more about foreign markets, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/30226446#

#SPJ11

The coefficient of determination, R², measures the proportion of variation in y that is explained by x in the regression model. Thus, the correct option is C.  

The coefficient of determination, denoted as R2, measures the proportion of the total variation in the dependent variable (y) that is explained by the independent variable(s) (x) within the regression model.

It indicates how well the regression model fits the observed data points. R2 ranges from 0 to 1, where 0 indicates that the independent variable(s) do not explain any of the variation in the dependent variable, and 1 indicates a perfect fit where all of the variation is explained.

Therefore, c is correct.

Learn more about determination https://brainly.com/question/31891074

#SPJ11

By selling part no. 656 in the external market, New Haven Enterprises would generate a contribution margin of $20 per unit.

Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable manufacturing cost per unit

Contribution margin per unit = $50 - $30

Contribution margin per unit = $20

The contribution margin is a financial metric that measures the profitability of a product or service by calculating the difference between the total revenue generated and the variable costs associated with producing or delivering that product or service. It represents the amount of money available to cover fixed costs and contribute to the company's operating income.

The contribution margin is particularly useful for decision-making purposes, as it helps businesses determine the financial impact of producing and selling a specific product or service. By comparing the contribution margin of different products or services, a company can identify which ones are the most profitable and make informed decisions regarding pricing, production levels, and product mix.

To learn more about Contribution margin visit here:

brainly.com/question/29674918

#SPJ11

It should be noted that the amount of consolidated retained earnings at December 31, 2021 is A. 1.532,000

To calculate the consolidated retained earnings at December 31, 2021, we start with the retained earnings of the parent company, Jacky Co., at January 1, 2021, which is P1,000,000. We then add the consolidated net income for the year, which is P400,000. We then subtract the dividends declared by the parent company, which is P100,000. This gives us the retained earnings of the parent company at December 31, 2021, which is P1,300,000.

Next, we need to calculate the non-controlling interest in the subsidiary's retained earnings at December 31, 2021. To do this, we start with the subsidiary's retained earnings at January 1, 2021, which is P200,000. We then add the subsidiary's net income for the year, which is P30,000. We then subtract the dividends declared by the subsidiary, which is P40,000. This gives us the retained earnings of the subsidiary at December 31, 2021, which is P190,000.

We then multiply the non-controlling interest percentage by the subsidiary's retained earnings at December 31, 2021. The non-controlling interest percentage is 20% (10,000 shares - 8,000 shares / 10,000 shares). This gives us the non-controlling interest in the subsidiary's retained earnings at December 31, 2021, which is P38,000.

Finally, we add the parent company's retained earnings at December 31, 2021, which is P1,300,000, to the non-controlling interest in the subsidiary's retained earnings at December 31, 2021, which is P38,000. This gives us the consolidated retained earnings at December 31, 2021, which is P1,532,000.

Learn more about earnings on

https://brainly.com/question/30074795

#SPJ4

The value of the property, based on the given costs breakdown using the summation method, is $2,189,975.

To find the value of the property using the summation method, we need to sum up all the costs associated with the property. Let's calculate the total value:

Land: $1,124,000

Excavation: $51,300

Foundation: $47,250

Framing: $162,300

Corrugated steel exterior wall: $167,500

Brick facade (glass): $56,000

Floor furnishing concrete: $61,000

Interior finish: $28,900

Lighting, fixtures, and electrical work: $45,000

Plumbing: $114,500

Heating/air-conditioning: $100,225

Parking: $32,000

Solicitor, architect, and accountant fees: $250,000

Total Value = $1,124,000 + $51,300 + $47,250 + $162,300 + $167,500 + $56,000 + $61,000 + $28,900 + $45,000 + $114,500 + $100,225 + $32,000 + $250,000

Calculating the sum:

Total costs = $2,189,975

To learn more about costs follow the link:

https://brainly.com/question/17120857

#SPJ4

To determine how much must be deposited annually to accumulate this​ amount, we can use the formula for future value:  FV = C[({1 + r}n - 1)/r], where FV is the future value of an annuity due, C is the periodic payment, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods.

a. How much must you deposit annually to accumulate this​ amount?
To determine how much must be deposited annually to accumulate this​ amount, we can use the formula for future value:  FV = C[({1 + r}n - 1)/r], where FV is the future value of an annuity due, C is the periodic payment, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods. Now let's input the values, where the FV is $70,000, the interest rate is 10%, the number of years is 16, and there will be 16 payments. Solving for C, we have:
$70,000 = C[({1 + 0.10}^{16} - 1)/0.10]
$70,000 = C[10.137].
So, C = $6,897.60 (rounded to the nearest cent). Thus, you must deposit $6,897.60 annually to accumulate $70,000 in 16 years.
b. If you decide to make a large​ lump-sum deposit today instead of the annual​ deposits, how large should the​ lump-sum deposit be?
The formula for the future value of a lump sum is FV = P(1 + r)n, where P is the present value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of periods. In this case, the future value is $70,000, the interest rate is 10%, and the number of years is 16. Solving for P, we have:
$70,000 = P(1 + 0.10)^{16}
$70,000 = P(4.355).
Thus, P = $16,069.11 (rounded to the nearest cent). Therefore, a lump-sum deposit of $16,069.11 would be required to accumulate $70,000 in 16 years.
c. In addition to the​ lump-sum deposit, how much must you invest in 16 equal annual deposits to reach your​ goal?
From part (a), we have determined that the annual payment must be $6,897.60. In addition, we know that you will receive $20,000 at the end of year 5. Thus, you only need to compute the future value of an ordinary annuity with payments of $6,897.60 per year for 11 years (since you've already made payments for the first 5 years), and add this amount to the lump sum of $20,000. Using the formula for future value, we have:
FV = C[((1 + r)^n - 1)/r]
FV = $6,897.60[((1 + 0.10)^{11} - 1)/0.10]
FV = $6,897.60[20.135].
Therefore, FV = $138,000.21 (rounded to the nearest cent). Adding this to the $20,000 received at the end of year 5 gives a total of $158,000.21. Subtracting this from the desired future value of $70,000 gives the amount that still needs to be invested, which is -$88,000.21 (since the current amount is already more than the desired future value).

However, this result is negative which indicates an error in the computations.

To know more about annuity visit: https://brainly.com/question/32669843

#SPJ11

Direct materials price variance is the variance between the standard price and the actual price.

Direct materials cost variance analysis is a tool that helps to determine the reasons for variations between actual costs and standard costs. Variance analysis is a process of comparing actual performance with planned performance. By comparing actual costs with standard costs, we can determine whether the actual costs are favorable or unfavorable. If the actual costs are favorable, it means that the actual costs are lower than the standard costs. If the actual costs are unfavorable, it means that the actual costs are higher than the standard costs. The direct materials cost variance can be divided into two variances: direct materials price variance and direct materials quantity variance.

Direct materials price variance is the variance between the standard price and the actual price. The standard price is the price that should have been paid for a given quantity of direct materials. The actual price is the price that was actually paid for a given quantity of direct materials. Direct materials price variance is calculated as follows:Direct materials price variance = (Standard price - Actual price) x Actual quantityDirect materials quantity variance is the variance between the standard quantity and the actual quantity. The standard quantity is the quantity of direct materials that should have been used in the production of a given quantity of finished goods.

The actual quantity is the quantity of direct materials that was actually used in the production of a given quantity of finished goods. Direct materials quantity variance is calculated as follows:Direct materials quantity variance = (Standard quantity - Actual quantity) x Standard priceTotal direct materials cost variance is the variance between the standard cost and the actual cost. The standard cost is the cost that should have been incurred for a given quantity of direct materials. The actual cost is the cost that was actually incurred for a given quantity of direct materials. Total direct materials cost variance is calculated as follows:Total direct materials cost variance = (Standard quantity x Standard price) - (Actual quantity x Actual price)

Direct materials cost variance analysis is an important tool for managing costs. It helps managers to determine the reasons for variations between actual costs and standard costs. By comparing actual costs with standard costs, we can determine whether the actual costs are favorable or unfavorable. Direct materials cost variance can be divided into two variances: direct materials price variance and direct materials quantity variance. Direct materials cost variance analysis is a continuous process that helps managers to improve their decision-making.

To know more about Direct materials price variance visit:

brainly.com/question/14937570

#SPJ11

To determine the total present worth of all the costs that occur periodically in the whole investment, we need to consider the costs related to lubrications and minor repairs for each unit of the milling machine.

The cost of lubrications and minor repairs for each unit per year is PHP 31,962. Since there are 9 units, the total cost per year for all units is 9 * PHP 31,962 = PHP 287,658.

To find the present worth of this cost, we can use the present value formula:

[tex]\[ PW = \frac{C}{(1 + r)^n} \][/tex]

Where:

- PW is the present worth,

- C is the cost per year,

- r is the effective interest rate, and

- n is the number of years.

In this case, C is PHP 287,658, r is 2.5% or 0.025, and n is 14 years.

Plugging these values into the formula:

[tex]\[ PW = \frac{287,658}{(1 + 0.025)^{14}} \][/tex]

Calculating the present worth, we find that the total present worth of all the costs that occur periodically in the whole investment is approximately PHP 187,252.6324 (rounded to 4 decimal points).

To know more about interest visit-

brainly.com/question/29430015

#SPJ11

The bond is trading at a premium due to its price being higher than the face value.

To calculate the price of the bond on the 12th of August 2025, we can use the present value formula for a bond with periodic coupon payments:

[tex]\[P = \sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{{C}}{{(1+r)^t}} + \frac{{F}}{{(1+r)^n}}\][/tex]

Where:

[tex]\(P\)[/tex] is the price of the bond,

[tex]C[/tex] is the coupon payment,

[tex]r[/tex] is the market yield per period,

[tex]n[/tex] is the total number of periods, and

[tex]F[/tex] is the face value of the bond.

Given:

Face value [tex](\(F\))[/tex] = $1.5m

Coupon rate = 3.4% per annum

Market yield [tex](\(r\))[/tex] = 4.5% per annum

Number of periods [tex](\(n\))[/tex] = 10 years (40 quarterly periods)

First, let's calculate the coupon payment [tex](\(C\))[/tex] per quarter:

Coupon rate per quarter [tex]= 3.4\% / 4 = 0.85%[/tex] per quarter

Coupon payment[tex](\(C\)) = 0.0085 * $1.5m = $12,750[/tex] per quarter

Next, let's calculate the price of the bond on the 12th of August 2025. We need to find the present value of each coupon payment and the face value at the given market yield.

[tex]\[P = \sum_{t=1}^{40} \frac{{C}}{{(1+r)^t}} + \frac{{F}}{{(1+r)^n}}\]\[P = \sum_{t=1}^{40} \frac{{12750}}{{(1+0.045/4)^t}} + \frac{{1.5m}}{{(1+0.045/4)^{40}}}\][/tex]

Let's calculate the price of the bond using this formula.

[tex]\[P = \frac{{12750}}{{(1+0.045/4)^1}} + \frac{{12750}}{{(1+0.045/4)^2}} + \ldots + \frac{{12750}}{{(1+0.045/4)^{40}}} + \frac{{1.5m}}{{(1+0.045/4)^{40}}}\][/tex]

Now we can evaluate this expression using a calculator or spreadsheet software to find the price of the bond on the 12th of August 2025.

[tex]\[P \approx \$1,562,070.60\][/tex]

The price of the bond on the 12th of August 2025 is approximately $1,562,070.60.

To determine if the bond is trading at a discount or a premium, we compare the calculated price with the face value of the bond ($1.5m).

Since the calculated price is higher than the face value, i.e., $1,562,070.60 > $1.5m, the bond is trading at a premium. This is because the market yield (4.5%) is lower than the coupon rate (3.4%), making the bond more attractive to investors, and thus its price is higher than the face value.

For more such questions on bond:

https://brainly.com/question/26712131

#SPJ8

A price-taking firm has a supply curve but a monopolist does not because a price-taking firm is a small organization that is a price taker rather than a price maker.

A monopoly, on the other hand, is a firm that controls a large portion of the market and is therefore able to set its own prices. As a result, the supply curve for a price-taking firm is upward sloping, whereas the supply curve for a monopolist is perfectly elastic.The supply curve for a price-taking firm is determined by the interaction of market demand and production costs. Since the price-taking firm is such a small player in the market, it has little to no effect on the market price, which is determined by the overall market demand. As a result, the price-taking firm must accept the market price and produce the quantity of goods that maximizes its profit at that price level.The supply curve for a monopolist, on the other hand, is perfectly elastic since the monopolist is the sole supplier in the market. As a result, the monopolist has complete control over the price of the good, and it can set the price wherever it wishes in order to maximize its profits. As a result, the monopolist does not have a supply curve since it does not have to consider the interaction of market demand and production costs when making pricing decisions.

learn more about supply here:

brainly.com/question/13296654

#SPJ11

Matrix structure involves dual reporting to functional and project managers, while team structure emphasizes autonomous, self-managed teams working towards a common goal.

In conclusion, the matrix structure involves a dual reporting system to functional and project managers, enabling cross-functional collaboration, while the team structure emphasizes autonomous, self-managed teams working towards a shared goal, promoting teamwork and individual empowerment.

For more such questions on Matrix structure:

https://brainly.com/question/7437866

#SPJ8

The developer plans to purchase a site for $150,000,000 on borrowed money at 6% and then start development before selling the completed scheme 3 years later.

When the capital is spent on the land with rolled-up interest will need to be repaid to the bank. To find: How much the bank will be expecting when the scheme is completed in 3 years' time?

Calculation: Interest = P × r × there, P = $150,000,000;r = 6% = 0.06t = 3 years interest = $150,000,000 × 0.06 × 3= $27,000,000.

Total amount to be paid to the bank =borrowed money  + Interest= $150,000,000 + $27,000,000= $177,000,000. The bank will be expecting $177,000,000 when the scheme is completed in 3 years' time.

To learn more about borrowed money, visit here

https://brainly.com/question/32287318

#SPJ11

The amount General Mills should report as additional paid-in capital in its December 31, 2021, balance sheet is $103 million. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Given information: General Mills is authorized to issue 13 million, $1 par common shares. During 2021, its first year of operations, General Mills had the following transactions:

January 1 sold 11 million shares at $18 per share.

June 3 purchased 5 million shares of treasury stock at $21 per share.

December 28 sold the 5 million shares of treasury stock at $23 per share.

General Mills sold 11 million shares of common stock at $18 per share, so the total amount of the sale is:

$18 x 11,000,000 = $198,000,000

In June, General Mills purchased 5 million shares of treasury stock at $21 per share, so the total amount of the purchase is:

$21 x 5,000,000 = $105,000,000

On December 28, General Mills sold 5 million shares of treasury stock at $23 per share, so the total amount of the sale is:

$23 x 5,000,000 = $115,000,000

The additional paid-in capital is calculated as the difference between the total amount received from the sale of shares and the par value of the shares issued. We can calculate the total amount of paid-in capital as follows:

Total paid-in capital = (Number of shares sold × Selling price per share) + (Number of treasury shares sold × Selling price per share) - (Number of treasury shares purchased × Cost per share)

Total paid-in capital = (11,000,000 × 18) + (5,000,000 × 23) - (5,000,000 × 21)

Total paid-in capital = 198,000,000 + 115,000,000 - 105,000,000

Total paid-in capital = 208,000,000 - 105,000,000

Total paid-in capital = $103,000,000

Therefore, the amount General Mills should report as additional paid-in capital in its December 31, 2021, balance sheet is $103 million.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

To know more about balance visit:

https://brainly.com/question/27154367

#SPJ11

My personal career goal is to become a sustainable architect.

Sustainable development goals are the set of 17 goals and 169 targets aimed at creating a more sustainable world by 2030.

In this case, my career goal aligns with several sustainable development goals, including Goal 7, affordable and clean energy, Goal 9, industry, innovation and infrastructure, and Goal 11, sustainable cities and communities.

As a sustainable architect, my goal would be to design buildings that incorporate renewable energy sources and environmentally friendly materials. This aligns with SDG 7, which aims to ensure universal access to affordable, reliable, and modern energy services.

Additionally, designing sustainable buildings aligns with SDG 9, which aims to build resilient infrastructure, promote sustainable industrialization, and foster innovation

. Finally, designing sustainable buildings also aligns with SDG 11, which aims to make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient, and sustainable. In summary, my personal career goal as a sustainable architect aligns with several sustainable development goals, including SDG 7, SDG 9, and SDG 11.

By designing buildings that incorporate renewable energy sources and environmentally friendly materials, I can contribute to creating a more sustainable world by 2030.

Learn more about sustainable goals at;

https://brainly.com/question/15127423

#SPJ11