16) A business pays weekly salaries on Friday of $25,000 for a five-day week ending on Friday. Assuming the fiscal period ends on a Wednesday, the adjusting entry for accrued salaries would involve a: A) debit to salary payable for $10,000. B) debit to salary expense for $15,000. C) credit to salary payable for $10,000. D) credit to salary expense for $15,000.

Answers

Answer 1

The correct option is (D)

In a scenario where a business pays weekly salaries on Friday of $25,000 for a five-day week ending on Friday and assuming the fiscal period ends on a Wednesday, the adjusting entry for accrued salaries would involve a credit to salary expense for $15,000.As the fiscal period ends on Wednesday, three days of work are not included in the Friday payment.

Therefore, the weekly salary for five days would be $25,000, and the daily wage would be $5,000 ($25,000/5 days).The adjusting entry would be needed to account for the three-day wages payable, which are not included in the Friday payment.

As a result, the business would debit the salaries expense account with the estimated amount of three days' wages, which is $15,000, and credit the same amount to the wages payable account .The adjusting entry for accrued salaries would therefore involve a credit to salary expense for $15,000.

Conclusion:

Thus, the business will debit the salaries expense account with the estimated amount of three days' wages, which is $15,000, and credit the same amount to the wages payable account. Therefore, option D is correct, which says that the adjusting entry for accrued salaries would involve a credit to salary expense for $15,000.

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Related Questions

For each of the following transactions, select the proper accounting entry from the list provided. a. Inventory was received but not paid for on a purchase order. Payment terms were 2% 10, Net 30. 1. DR A/C #12100 Inventory Asset 2. DR A/C #12100 Inventory Asset 3. DR A/C #50100 Cost of Goods Sold CR A/C #50100 Cost of Goods Sold CR A/C #20000 Accounts Payable CR A/C #20000 Accounts Payable CR A/C #54300 Job Materials 4. DR A/C #12100 Inventory Asset 5. None of the above

Answers

The proper accounting entry for the given transaction is:

DR A/C #12100 Inventory Asset

CR A/C #20000 Accounts Payable

This entry reflects the receipt of inventory but not yet making the payment. It increases the inventory asset account (debit) and records the liability to the supplier in the accounts payable account (credit). This entry does not involve the Cost of Goods Sold or the Job Materials accounts.

Therefore, option 1 is the correct accounting entry for this transaction

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_____ helps marketers develop marketing programs tailored to prospective buyers who live in small regions or who have very specific lifestyle characteristics.

Answers

Geographic segmentation helps marketers develop marketing programs tailored to prospective buyers who live in small regions or who have very specific lifestyle characteristics.

What is a Geographic segmentation?

Geographic segmentation is a marketing strategy that involves dividing a target market into smaller, more manageable segments based on geographic factors such as location, region, climate, population density, and other relevant geographical characteristics.

It recognizes that consumer preferences, behaviors, and needs can vary based on their geographic location.

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If you were to describe yourself in one sentence, what would you say?

Answers

A person who loves video games and skateboarding

Suppose that in a country the total holdings of banks were as follows: total reserves (required reserves + excess reserves) = unknown, loans = $855 million, deposits = $900 million These are the only assets and liabilities Assume that people hold no currency. Based on the required reserve ratio in the previous question, what is the maximum amount of total money supply that can be created from the deposit? O 45,000 million 90,000 million 22,500 million O 30,000 million

Answers

In this scenario, the maximum total money supply that can be created from the deposit is $90 million.

To determine the maximum amount of total money supply that can be created from the deposit, we need to calculate the total reserves, which consist of required reserves and excess reserves.

The required reserve ratio represents the portion of deposits that banks are legally required to hold as reserves. If we assume a required reserve ratio of 10% (0.10), we can calculate the required reserves:

Required reserves = Deposits * Required reserve ratio

Required reserves = $900 million * 0.10

Required reserves = $90 million

Now, to calculate the total reserves, we need to consider both required reserves and excess reserves. Excess reserves are the amount of reserves held by banks beyond the required reserves. We don't have the exact information on excess reserves, so let's assume that there are no excess reserves in this scenario.

Total reserves = Required reserves + Excess reserves

Total reserves = $90 million + $0 million

Total reserves = $90 million

The maximum amount of total money supply that can be created from the deposit is equal to the total reserves:

Maximum money supply = Total reserves

Maximum money supply = $90 million

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The Phillips Company paid total cash dividends of $150,400 on 32,000 outstanding common shares. On the most recent trading day, the common shares sold at $87. What is this company's dividend yield? (NOTE, don't forget ratios from CH 9 are listed out in the instructions part of the exam.) 21.28% 3.60% 5.40% 3.57 pts O 13.18%

Answers

The Phillips Company's dividend yield is 5.40%.

The dividend yield of The Phillips Company with the given data can be calculated as follows:

Dividend yield = Annual dividends per share / Market price per share

Where,

Annual dividends per share = Total dividends paid / Number of shares outstanding

Market price per share = $87

Number of shares outstanding = 32,000

Total dividends paid = $150,400

Using the above formula we get,

Annual dividends per share = Total dividends paid / Number of shares outstanding

= $150,400 / 32,000

= $4.70

Market price per share = $87

Dividend yield = Annual dividends per share / Market price per share

= $4.70 / $87

= 0.0540

= 5.40%

Therefore, the dividend yield of The Phillips Company with the given data is 5.40%.

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Who determines your credit score?​

Answers

Answer:

Credit karma

Explanation:

Answer:

Your credit scores are determined by credit scoring models that analyze one of your consumer credit reports and then assign a score using complex calculations.

Explanation:

The five pieces of your credit score

Your payment history accounts for 35% of your score. How much you owe on loans and credit cards makes up 30% of your score. The length of your credit history accounts for 15% of your score. The types of accounts you have made up 10% of your score. Recent credit activity makes up the final 10%.

IAS 1 requires a complete set of financial statements to include all of the following except
Select one:
a. a statement of cash flows.
b. a statement of financial position.
c. a statement of changes in equity.
d. a statement of comprehensive income.
e. a statement of bank reconciliation.

Answers

With the exception of the following, IAS 1 requires a complete set of financial statements to include bank reconciliation statement . Option E is correct.

According to IAS 1 the accompanying budget reports will be finished :

1 . Statement of Cash Flows

2 . Statement of Equity Changes

3 . Statement of Financial Position

4.  Statement of Income or Comprehensive Income

5.  Financial Statement Notes

Thus, an assertion of Bank Compromise isn't viewed as in that frame of mind of fiscal summaries. It is the assertion of which accommodates the distinction between bank adjusts according to books and bank explanation.It's anything but a piece of budget summaries according to IAS 1 as it has been arranged for the reason to decide the reason of contrasts and right it.

A company's bank reconciliation statement is a document that demonstrates that the balance in its recorded bank account matches the balance listed by the bank. All transactions, such as deposits and withdrawals, from a specific time period are included in this statement.

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Is it ethical for politicians to be able to invest in the stock
market, given the way they have access to insider information??

Answers

Politicians are sometimes given insider information that is not available to the general public. Such information can affect the value of a corporation's shares. In some circumstances, politicians may be accused of using this insider information to make a profit.

Some people believe that politicians should be permitted to invest in the stock market. They argue that it is their legal right to do so, and that there are no laws prohibiting it. They also argue that because politicians are public officials, they should be entitled to the same rights and opportunities as everyone else. Others argue that it is unethical for politicians to invest in the stock market. They believe that it creates a conflict of interest, and that it undermines the public's trust in the government. If politicians are allowed to invest in the stock market, they may be tempted to abuse their power and manipulate the stock market for their own benefit.

In conclusion, it is important for politicians to be mindful of the ethical implications of investing in the stock market, especially when they have access to insider information. While there may be no laws prohibiting them from doing so, they must consider the potential conflicts of interest and the public's trust in the government.

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please answer detailly, I will give a like
3. FORMULATION Edwards Manufacturing Company purchases two component parts from three different supplier Component price data (in price per unit) are as follows: Component 1 2 1 $12 $10 Supplier 2 $13

Answers

Supplier 2 charges $13 for Component 1 per unit.

What is Supplier 2 Component 1 price?

Edwards Manufacturing Company procures two component parts from three different suppliers. The price per unit for each component from the respective suppliers is as follows:

Component 1:

Supplier 1: $12 per unitSupplier 2: $13 per unit

Component 2:

Supplier 1: $10 per unitSupplier 2: Information not provided

The information provided does not specify the price for Component 2 from Supplier 2. Therefore, we are unable to provide a specific answer for that particular component from that supplier. However, based on the given data, Component 1 is available from both suppliers, with Supplier 2 offering a slightly higher price of $13 per unit compared to Supplier 1's price of $12 per unit.

To provide a more detailed answer or further assistance, please provide additional information or clarify any specific requirements or concerns you have regarding Edwards Manufacturing Company's purchases.

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23 1 points eBook Print References All conversion costs are included in the direct-labor budget. True or False True False

Answers

The given statement "All conversion costs are included in the direct-labor budget" is False. Conversion costs are all manufacturing costs involved in transforming raw materials into completed products. The statement is False

Conversion costs involve labor and overhead expenses associated with manufacturing processes. Conversion costs are made up of direct labor costs and manufacturing overhead costs, not just direct labor costs. Therefore, we can conclude that the given statement is incorrect. Conversion costs can be calculated using the following formula: Conversion Costs = Direct Labor + Manufacturing Overhead

Examples of manufacturing overhead expenses include rent and utilities, equipment depreciation, and indirect labor expenses. Thus, direct labor and manufacturing overhead expenses make up conversion costs. Therefore, the statement "All conversion costs are included in the direct-labor budget" is false.

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Your mortgage has 25 years​ left, and has an APR of 6.167% (with semiannual​ compounding) with monthly payments of $1,500.

a. What is the outstanding​ balance?  

b. Suppose you cannot make the mortgage payment and you are in danger of losing your house to foreclosure. The bank has offered to renegotiate your loan. The bank expects to get $167,000 for the house if it forecloses. They will lower your payment as long as they will receive at least this amount​ (in present value​ terms). If current 25​-year mortgage interest rates have dropped to 4.009% (APR with semiannual​ compounding), what is the lowest monthly payment you could make for the remaining life of your loan that would be attractive to the​ bank?

Answers

Explanation :

a. Calculation of outstanding balance is as follows:

Let us assume the monthly interest rate be r. Hence the semi-annual interest rate will be 2r and the annual interest rate will be 2(1+r/2) - 1 = APR/2

Number of payments = (25 years) x (12 months/year) = 300n = number of years for the loan=25 yearsx2 = 50 periods (semiannual compounding).

Using the given APR, we can solve for the semi-annual interest rate:6.167% APR implies semi-annual interest rate r = (1+0.06167/2)^2 – 1 = 0.030485

Monthly payment = $1,500

Balance = Monthly Payment x ((1 + r)^n - 1) / (r(1 + r)^n)=$1,500 x ((1 + 0.030485)^50 - 1) / (0.030485 x (1 + 0.030485)^50)= $187,618.55

Outstanding balance is $187,618.55.b. To determine the lowest monthly payment which would be attractive to the bank, we can solve for the present value of the remaining payments under the original mortgage. This amount must be at least $167,000 for the bank to approve of the renegotiation.

To determine the present value of the remaining payments, we will use the formula PV = C/r * (1 - (1+r)^-n)where C is the monthly payment, r is the monthly interest rate, and n is the number of remaining payments.

Present Value of original mortgage payments: PV = $1,500/0.5(0.04009/12) * (1 - (1 + 0.04009/12)^-300)=$246,776.81

We know that the bank will approve the renegotiation if the present value of the remaining payments is at least $167,000. Thus, we can use this amount to solve for the new monthly payment.

New Monthly Payment:Solving for the new monthly payment C in the present value formula above using $167,000 as the PV:$167,000 = C/0.5(0.04009/12) * (1 - (1 + 0.04009/12)^-300)C = $1,188.07

Therefore, the lowest monthly payment which would be attractive to the bank is $1,188.07.

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QS 11-9 (Static) Accounting for large stock dividends LO P2 Belkin Incorporated has 100,000 shares of $3 par value common stock outstanding. Belkin declares a 40% stock dividend on March 2 when the stock's market value is $72 per share. Prepare the journal entry for declaration of the stock dividend. View transaction list Journal entry worksheet < 1 Record the declaration of a 40 % stock dividend. Note: Enter debits before credits. Date March 02 Record entry General Journal Clear entry Debit Credit View general Journal

Answers

A stock dividend occurs when a company distributes its shares to current shareholders rather than paying them cash. This causes the number of shares outstanding to rise. This implies that if an investor owned 100 shares before the dividend, they will own 140 shares after the dividend has been paid.Therefore, a 40% stock dividend means that each investor will receive 40 extra shares for every 100 shares they own. Now, we'll use the journal entry to record the declaration of the stock dividend. The journal entry to record the declaration of the stock dividend is as follows:Debit stock dividend distributable by $120,000Credit Common Stock ($3 par value) by $60,000Credit Paid-in capital in excess of par-common stock by $60,000Let's look at why we're using these accounts. When the company declares a stock dividend, the first account to be debited is the Stock Dividend Distributable account, which is a liability account. The declaration of a stock dividend has no effect on the company's total equity; thus, this account keeps track of the dividend's total cost to the company. This is done to account for the shares that have been distributed and to keep track of the shares that have not yet been distributed. This liability account is debited for the total cost of the dividend, which is $120,000 ($72/share x 40% x 100,000 shares).The credit side of the entry is divided between the Common Stock account and the Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par-Common Stock account. The number of shares in the Common Stock account increases as a result of a stock dividend, but the par value per share does not. As a result, we will credit the Common Stock account for $60,000 ($3/share x 20,000 shares), which is the par value of the shares distributed.The remaining $60,000 ($72/share x 20,000 shares) is credited to the Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par-Common Stock account. This account represents the amount of money that shareholders have paid in excess of the par value of the company's stock. It represents the value of the company's equity that has been generated through other sources, such as the sale of stock at a price above par value or the sale of stock in excess of par value. Therefore, the journal entry to record the declaration of the stock dividend is:Debit: Stock Dividend Distributable for $120,000Credit: Common Stock ($3 par value) for $60,000Credit: Paid-in capital in excess of par-common stock for $60,000

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The Chief Executive is planning to change the current organizational structure to a team-based structure with permanent teams. Specify the type of structure that the Chief Executive is planning to change to.

Answers

The Chief Executive is planning to change the current organizational structure to a team-based structure with permanent teams.

A team-based structure is an organizational structure that is made up of teams that are formed around specific business functions or processes. These teams, unlike traditional departments, are more flexible, cross-functional, and self-managing. They also have a lot of autonomy, which means they can make decisions on their own without having to go through a lot of bureaucratic processes.A team-based structure is well-suited to organizations that are looking for a more innovative and responsive approach to managing their operations. This type of structure enables organizations to respond more quickly to changes in the market and to customer needs. It also fosters collaboration and teamwork among employees, which can lead to higher levels of job satisfaction and engagement. By changing to a team-based structure, the Chief Executive is hoping to create a more agile, responsive, and innovative organization.

The type of structure that the Chief Executive is planning to change to is a team-based structure with permanent teams. This structure is characterized by its flexibility, cross-functionality, self-management, and autonomy. By adopting this structure, the organization will be better equipped to respond to changes in the market and to customer needs, foster collaboration and teamwork among employees, and create a more agile, responsive, and innovative organization.

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a) ZZTech Berhad is seeking your financial advice to determine the firms cost of long term financing. The following data are relevant to your task: i) Issue bond with 12 percent coupon and the floatat

Answers

ZZTech Berhad's cost of long-term financing can be determined by analyzing the relevant data: issuing a bond with a 12 percent coupon rate and a floating rate.

What factors determine ZZTech Berhad's cost of long-term financing?

The cost of long-term financing for ZZTech Berhad is influenced by various factors, with the issuance of a bond being one of them. Bonds are debt securities that pay a fixed interest rate, known as the coupon rate, over a specified period. In this case, the bond has a 12 percent coupon rate. This means that the company will pay an annual interest expense of 12 percent of the bond's face value.

Additionally, the bond has a floating rate component. A floating rate is typically based on a reference rate, such as the LIBOR (London Interbank Offered Rate), plus a predetermined spread. The floating rate allows the interest payment to adjust periodically based on changes in the reference rate, providing some flexibility and potentially mitigating interest rate risk.

To determine the firm's overall cost of long-term financing, it is necessary to consider other factors, such as the company's creditworthiness, prevailing market conditions, and investor demand for the bond. These factors can affect the bond's yield and the cost of capital for ZZTech Berhad.

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the initial measurement of restructuring liabilities is at fair value, which often is estimated as the

Answers

The initial measurement of restructuring liabilities is at fair value, which is frequently estimated as the present value of expected future cash flows.

When a company incurs restructuring liabilities, such as costs associated with employee termination benefits or contract terminations, it is required to recognize and measure these liabilities in its financial statements. The initial measurement of these liabilities is done at fair value. Fair value represents the amount that would be received to settle the liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date.

In the context of restructuring liabilities, fair value is often estimated as the present value of expected future cash flows. This involves forecasting the future cash outflows associated with the restructuring activities, discounting them to their present value using an appropriate discount rate, and summing them up to determine the fair value of the liability. By using present value, the estimate takes into account the time value of money and reflects the current value of the expected future cash flows.

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Carla Vista Industries has purchased equipment from a Brazilian firm for a total cost of 295,000 Brazilian reals. The firm has to pay in 30 days. Citibank has given the firm a 30-day forward quote of $0.3102/real. Assume that on the day the payment is due, the spot rate is $0.3418/real. How much would Carla Vista save by hedging with a forward contract?

Answers

Carla Vista Industries would not save anything by hedging with a forward contract.

Given:

Cost of Equipment = 295,000

Brazilian reals Forward Quote of Citibank = $0.3102/real

Spot Rate at the time of payment = $0.3418/real

Formula Used: Amount Saved = Forward Rate - Spot RateCalculation:

Amount of cost in USD, without hedging = 295,000 Brazilian reals * $0.3102/real = $91,329

Without Hedging, the company will pay $91,329 at the time of payment

Amount of cost in USD, with hedging = 295,000

Brazilian reals * $0.3102/real = $91,329

Amount Saved = Forward Rate - Spot Rate

= $0.3102/real - $0.3418/real

= -$0.0316/real

The forward rate is less than the spot rate, which means the company is not saving any amount, rather it has to bear the loss of $0.0316/real for the transaction if hedged.

Therefore, Carla Vista Industries would not save anything by hedging with a forward contract.

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Willie Company sells 35,000 units at $20 per unit. Variable costs are $12.80 per unit, and fixed costs are $115,900. Determine (a) the contribution margin ratio, (b) the unit contribution margin, and (c) operating income. a. Contribution margin ratio (Enter as a whole number.) % per unit b. Unit contribution margin (Round to the nearest cent.) c. Operating income

Answers

Given data:Willie Company sells 35,000 units at $20 per unit. Variable costs are $12.80 per unit, and fixed costs are $115,900. We have to find the contribution margin ratio, unit contribution margin, and operating income.Contribution margin ratio= (Sales - Variable costs) / Sales= ($20 - $12.80) / $20= $7.20 / $20= 0.36= 36%Unit contribution margin= Selling price - Variable cost per unit= $20 - $12.80= $7.20Contribution Margin= (Selling price per unit - Variable costs per unit) * Number of units sold= $7.20 * 35,000= $252,000Operating income= Contribution Margin - Fixed costs= $252,000 - $115,900= $136,100Therefore, the answers are:a. The contribution margin ratio is 36%.b. The unit contribution margin is $7.20.c. The operating income is $136,100.

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Develop a strategic business plan for a POULTRY CHICKEN FARMING to be submitted to a lending institution so that you can borrow funds to start your small business. You are required to write an Company Description of a POULTRY CHICKEN FARMING in Australia.

Answers

Company Description of a POULTRY CHICKEN FARMING in Australia: A poultry farm is a company that raises birds, typically chickens, for meat or egg production. Poultry farms can be small or large, ranging from a few dozen birds to hundreds of thousands. They can be located in urban or rural areas, and may specialize in different types of poultry.

The goal of this  for a poultry chicken farming is to obtain funding from a lending institution to start the business. This business plan outlines the company description of the poultry chicken farming.The poultry chicken farming is a small business that will be located in Australia. The farm will specialize in raising chickens for meat production. The chickens will be raised in free-range conditions to ensure their welfare and to produce high-quality meat.

The farm will be owned and operated by a team of experienced professionals who have a background in agriculture. They have a passion for farming and a commitment to producing quality products for their customers.The business will be structured as a partnership, with each partner contributing to the management and operation of the farm.

The partners will also be responsible for the marketing and sales of the products produced by the farm.The farm will be located on a piece of land that is suitable for poultry farming. The land will be leased or purchased, depending on the availability and cost of land in the area. The farm will be equipped with the necessary facilities and equipment to raise and care for the chickens.

The business plan outlines the financial projections for the poultry chicken farming. The projections include the startup costs, revenue projections, and cash flow projections. The plan also includes a marketing strategy to promote the products produced by the farm to potential customers.

In conclusion, the strategic business plan for a poultry chicken farming is a comprehensive document that outlines the company description, financial projections, and marketing strategy for the farm. The plan will be submitted to a lending institution to obtain funding for the startup of the business.

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Gertrude Kelp owns three boats that participate in commercial fishing for fresh Pacific salmon off the coast of Alaska. As part of her business she hires a captain and several crew members for each boat. In the market for fresh Pacific salmon, there are thousands of firms like Gertrude's. While Gertrude usually catches a significant number of fish each year, her contribution to the entire harvest of salmon is negligible relative to the size of the market. When Gertrude participates in the labor market to hire crew members for her boats, she is most likely considered a

Answers

Answer:

demander of labor services.

Explanation:

Labor is mandatory when producing goods and services. Businesses, companies and others require labor and capital as basic and important inputs to their production process. An increase in the demand for a firm's output will lead to more demand for labor, thereby lead to them hiring more staff.

Labor Force is simply defined as all non military people who are employed or unemployed.

C:3-58 Reconciling Book Income and Taxable Income. Alpha Corporation reports the following results for the current year: Net income per books (before federal income taxes) Federal income tax expense p

Answers

The following information is given about Alpha Corporation's results for the current year:Net income per books (before federal income taxes)Federal income tax expense paid (cash outflow) $500,000$150,000 Book income per financial records, before taxes: $500,000.

Additional information:The tax laws permit the corporation to depreciate $1,000,000 on its tax return this year but only $700,000 on its financial statements this year.The company paid $15,000 in fines to a government regulatory agency for violation of laws. The fine is not tax-deductible.What is the taxable income of Alpha Corporation and its current tax payable?Taxable income:As per the tax laws, the company can depreciate $1,000,000 on its tax return but only $700,000 on its financial statements. Therefore, the company can show an additional depreciation expense of $300,000 on its tax return.

The taxable income can be calculated as follows:Taxes = (500,000 - 700,000 + 300,000) x 21% = $42,000Therefore, the taxable income of Alpha Corporation is:Book income per financial records, before taxes - Tax adjustments = $500,000 - ($700,000 - $1,000,000) = $800,000Tax payable:The current tax payable can be calculated as follows:Current tax payable = Taxable income x Tax rate = $800,000 x 21% = $168,000Therefore, the current tax payable of Alpha Corporation is $168,000.

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What is the nominal annual rate of interest compounded
semi-annually if deposits of ​$178 made each month for 5.5 years
accumulate to ​$13,300​?

Answers

The nominal annual rate of interest compounded semi-annually if deposits of ​$178 made each month for 5.5 years accumulate to ​$13,300​ is 1.12%.

To find the nominal annual rate of interest compounded semi-annually if deposits of ​$178 made each month for 5.5 years accumulate to ​$13,300​, we need to use the formula for compound interest which is given as;[tex]P = A / (1 + r/n)^(^n^*^t^)[/tex] Where;P is the principal amount,A is the amount of money accumulated,r is the annual interest rate,n is the number of times the interest is compounded in a year,t is the number of years.

Firstly, let's calculate the principal amount;The total amount deposited over 5.5 years = $178 * 12 * 5.5 = $11,814. Therefore, the principal amount, P = $11,814.

Next, let's calculate the interest rate compounded semi-annually.The amount, A = $13,300n = 2 (since interest is compounded semi-annually)P = $11,814t = 5.5 years.

Substituting these values in the compound interest formula we get;[tex]13300 = 11814 / (1 + r/2)^(^2^ * ^5^)1 + r/2[/tex] = [tex](11814 / 13300)^(^1^/^(^2^*^5^.^5^))1 + r/2 = 1.00561 r = (1.00561 - 1) * 2r = 0.01122 or 1.12%.[/tex]

Therefore, the nominal annual rate of interest compounded semi-annually if deposits of ​$178 made each month for 5.5 years accumulate to ​$13,300​ is 1.12%.

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This is a
that shows
.

According to the map, each dot represents
.

The part of the country with the highest population is the
.

Answers

Answer:

This is a

✔ dot-density map

that shows

✔ numbers of people

According to the map, each dot represents

✔ 7500 people

The part of the country with the highest population is the

✔ Northeast

Explanation:

Binary variables are useful for modeling the O a. transportation problem. O b. fixed-charge problem. assignment problem. O c. O d. shortest route problem.

Answers

Binary variables are useful for modeling the "assignment problem".

Binary variables are used to model decisions that are yes-or-no types. For instance, we could use binary variables to indicate whether a task was assigned to a specific person or not. We can either assign the task or not assign it to the person, which is a binary decision. In the context of optimization, binary variables are used to make binary decisions on how much of a specific quantity to include in a solution. To improve optimization outcomes, binary variables must be intelligently implemented.

With the optimization tool, modeling and decision-making are significantly easier and faster, making it easier to find solutions to complex problems. The most significant advantage of binary variables is their versatility in modeling constraints that are difficult to represent otherwise. Binary variables are most commonly used to represent discrete decisions that are easily quantifiable. Binary variables are typically used to model decision problems that involve choosing between alternatives, including assigning tasks to people, determining the optimal size of a batch, or deciding whether or not to invest in a project.

Therefore, "assignment problems" is the correct answer.

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Sonic Corporation purchased and installed electronic payment equipment at its drive-in restaurants in San Marcos, TX, at a cost of $27,000. The equipment has an estimated residual value of $1,500. The equipment is expected to process 255.000 payments over its three year useful ite. Per year expected payment transactions are 61,200, year, 140,250, year 2, and 53,550, year 3.
Required:
Complete a depreciation schedule for each of the alternative methous
1. Straight-line.
2 Units-of-production
3. Double declining balance.

Answers

Depreciation Schedule: Straight-line Method:

The straight-line method allocates the cost evenly over the useful life of the equipment.

Cost of equipment: $27,000

Residual value: $1,500

Useful life: 3 years

Annual Depreciation Expense:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Residual value) / Useful life

Depreciation expense = ($27,000 - $1,500) / 3

Depreciation expense = $8,500 per year

Depreciation Schedule - Straight-line Method:

Year 1: $8,500

Year 2: $8,500

Year 3: $8,500

Units-of-Production Method:

The units-of-production method allocates the cost based on the number of units produced or expected usage.

Total expected units over the useful life: 255,000 payments

Annual Depreciation Expense:

Year 1:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Residual value) * (Units in the year / Total expected units)

Depreciation expense = ($27,000 - $1,500) * (61,200 / 255,000)

Depreciation expense = $6,264

Year 2:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Residual value) * (Units in the year / Total expected units)

Depreciation expense = ($27,000 - $1,500) * (140,250 / 255,000)

Depreciation expense = $13,716

Year 3:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Residual value) * (Units in the year / Total expected units)

Depreciation expense = ($27,000 - $1,500) * (53,550 / 255,000)

Depreciation expense = $5,020

Depreciation Schedule - Units-of-Production Method:

Year 1: $6,264

Year 2: $13,716

Year 3: $5,020

Double Declining Balance Method:

The double declining balance method allocates a higher depreciation expense in the earlier years and reduces it over time.

Cost of equipment: $27,000

Residual value: $1,500

Useful life: 3 years

Annual Depreciation Expense:

Year 1:

Depreciation expense = (Book value at the beginning of the year) * (2 / Useful life)

Depreciation expense = ($27,000 - $1,500) * (2 / 3)

Depreciation expense = $17,000

Year 2:

Depreciation expense = (Book value at the beginning of the year) * (2 / Useful life)

Depreciation expense = ($27,000 - $17,000) * (2 / 3)

Depreciation expense = $6,000

Year 3:

Depreciation expense = (Book value at the beginning of the year) * (2 / Useful life)

Depreciation expense = ($27,000 - $17,000 - $6,000) * (2 / 3)

Depreciation expense = $2,000

Depreciation Schedule - Double Declining Balance Method:

Year 1: $17,000

Year 2: $6,000

Year 3: $2,000

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A stock split: O increases assets and stockholders' equity. O has no effect on total stockholders' equity. decreases assets and increases stockholders' equity. O increases assets and decreases stockho

Answers

A stock split has no effect on total stockholders' equity. The correct answer is option b.

A stock split is a corporate action in which a company's existing shares are divided into numerous shares. A stock split occurs when a company divides its existing shares into many shares. A stock split does not change the overall worth of a company or an investor's stake in the firm.

A 2-for-1 stock split, for example, doubles the number of shares outstanding while halving the share price. However, a stock split has no effect on total stockholders' equity.

Therefore, the correct answer is option b.

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Suppose a financial manager has a portfolio that consists of a single asset. The return of the asset is normally distributed with mean return 25% and standard deviation 20%. The value of the portfolio today is $90 million. Using the Excel, calculate:
The distribution of the end-of-year portfolio value
The probability of a loss of more than $15 million by year-end
The maximum loss (value at risk) at the end of the year, with 1% probability using the Excel Solver.
b) Suppose that a portfolio whose initial value is $90 million and whose annual returns are lognormally distributed with parameters μ = 20% and σ = 15%. Calculate its annual Value at risk at 1%.

Answers

a) Portfolio value follows a normal distribution with mean µ = 25% and standard deviation σ = 20% . Therefore, the expected value of the portfolio at the end of the year would be:

µT= µ0+ µtT

Whereµ0= $90m(1 + µ) = $90m(1 + 0.25) = $112.5mand µt = 0 since the portfolio will be held for only one year.

Thus, the expected value of the portfolio at the end of the year is $112.5 million and the standard deviation of the distribution of the portfolio value at the end of the year is:

σT= σ √T= 0.20 √1= 0.20

Therefore, the distribution of the end-of-year portfolio value can be computed using the Excel NORM.DIST function with mean µT = $112.5 million and standard deviation σT = 0.20, and cumulative probability values ranging from 0 to 1.

Using the Excel NORM.DIST function, the probability of a loss of more than $15 million by year-end is:

NORM.DIST(-15, 112.5, 0.20, TRUE) = 0.00133

The maximum loss (value at risk) at the end of the year, with 1% probability, can be calculated using the Excel Solver by finding the maximum loss L such that the probability of a loss greater than L is equal to 1% or 0.01.

The Excel Solver is accessed by clicking on the "Data" tab in the Excel ribbon and then selecting "Solver" from the "Analysis" group. The Solver is set up as follows:

Set Objective:

Min L

Subject to the constraint:

NORM.DIST(L, 112.5, 0.20, TRUE) = 0.01Solve for L

This gives the maximum loss at the end of the year with 1% probability to be $28.88 million.

b) Portfolio value follows a lognormal distribution with mean µ = 20% and standard deviation σ = 15%. The annual value at risk (VaR) at 1% can be computed using the following formula:

VaR = e^(µ + zσ) - 1

where z is the number of standard deviations from the mean corresponding to the 1% tail of the distribution.

The value of z can be obtained from the Excel NORM.S.INV function as follows:

z = NORM.S.INV(0.01) = -2.33

Substituting the values of µ, σ, and z, we have:

VaR = e^(0.20 - 2.33 x 0.15) - 1 = e^0.17 - 1 = 0.1859 or 18.59%

Therefore, the annual value at risk (VaR) at 1% for the portfolio is $16.11 million (i.e., $90 million x 0.1859).

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An effective persuasive technique is to tie the facts to writer benefits . true false

Answers

True. Tying facts to writer benefits is an effective persuasive technique. When presenting facts or information in a persuasive context, it is important to connect those facts to the benefits that the audience or reader will gain from accepting or acting upon them.

By highlighting how the facts directly relate to the interests, needs, or desires of the audience, it becomes more compelling and persuasive. When facts are presented in isolation, they may not have the same impact or resonate with the audience. However, by linking the facts to the specific benefits that the audience can derive, such as improved outcomes, cost savings, personal growth, or enhanced well-being, the persuasive message becomes more relevant and persuasive.

By effectively demonstrating the value or advantages that the facts bring to the reader or listener, the persuasive argument becomes more compelling and increases the likelihood of influencing their opinions or actions.

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Lars Linken opened Bramble Cleaners on March 1, 2022. During March, the following transactions were completed.

My courses >

Mar 1

Issued 12,400 shares of common stock for $18,600 cash.

Borrowed $7.200 cash by signing a 6-month, 6% $7,200 note payable. Interest will be paid the first day of each

subsequent month

My books

Purchased used truck for $9,900 cash

Paid $1.800 cash to cover rent from March 1 through May 31.

My folder

3

Paid $3,000 cash on a 6-month insurance policy effective March 1.

Purchased cleaning supplies for $2,480 onpccount.

14 Billed customers $4,590 for cleaning services performed.

Career

18 Paid $620 on amount owed on cleaning supplies.

20 Paid $2.170 cash for employee salaries

21 Collected $1.980 cash from customers billed on March 14

Life

28 Billed customers $5.210 for cleaning services performed,

31 Paid $430 for gas and oil used in truck during month (use Maintenance and Repairs Expense).

Answers

In March 2022, Lars Linken opened Bramble Cleaners and completed several transactions.

On March 1, the company issued 12,400 shares of common stock, receiving $18,600 in cash. Additionally, they borrowed $7,200 cash by signing a 6-month, 6% note payable, with interest payments due on the first day of each subsequent month.Several purchases were made during the month. A used truck was acquired for $9,900 in cash, and $1,800 cash was paid to cover rent from March 1 through May 31. Bramble Cleaners also invested $3,000 cash in a 6-month insurance policy effective from March 1.On account, cleaning supplies were purchased for $2,480, and customers were billed $4,590 for cleaning services performed on March 14. On March 18, $620 was paid towards the amount owed on cleaning supplies, and on March 20, $2,170 cash was disbursed for employee salaries.On March 21, $1,980 cash was collected from customers previously billed. Towards the end of the month, on March 28, customers were billed an additional $5,210 for cleaning services rendered. Finally, on March 31, $430 was paid for gas and oil used in the truck, recorded under Maintenance and Repairs Expense.These transactions reflect the financial activities of Bramble Cleaners in March 2022, encompassing stock issuances, borrowing, purchases, payments, billings, collections, and operating expenses.

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what is the difference between Interest sensitive gap management and duration gap management? Discuss limitationsproblems with both these methods

Answers

Interest-sensitive gap management and duration gap management are two strategies employed by financial institutions to manage interest rate risk. Limitations of duration gap management include its reliance on the parallel shift assumption, like the interest-sensitive gap management.

Interest-sensitive gap management and duration gap management are two strategies employed by financial institutions to manage interest rate risk.

Interest-sensitive gap management primarily focuses on measuring and managing the interest rate gap between assets and liabilities, whereas duration gap management centers on the term structure of interest rates.

Both methods have their benefits and limitations. Interest-sensitive gap management Interest-sensitive gap management involves calculating the difference between the interest rate sensitivity of a bank's assets and liabilities. This management strategy focuses on the net interest income sensitivity to changes in interest rates.

Banks tend to use this method to manage their interest rate risk. For example, if a bank's assets have a higher interest rate than its liabilities, it may generate more interest income.

The interest rate risk arises when there are significant changes in interest rates that create instability in the bank's net interest income.

Limitations of interest-sensitive gap management include its oversimplified approach to measuring the interest rate risk of banks.

This method only captures changes in net interest income and may not account for the potential cash flow mismatches. The strategy also assumes parallel shifts in the interest rate structure, which may not always be the case.

Duration gap management Duration gap management strategy focuses on calculating the duration gap between a bank's assets and liabilities.

This method measures the sensitivity of a bank's portfolio to changes in the term structure of interest rates. This management strategy is useful in controlling interest rate risk by ensuring that the maturity of assets matches that of liabilities.

Limitations of duration gap management include its reliance on the parallel shift assumption, like the interest-sensitive gap management.

The strategy may not accurately capture the actual risk of cash flow mismatches in a bank's portfolio, especially in a rising rate environment.

The duration of a bank's asset or liability may be distorted due to embedded options, which may complicate the accuracy of the duration gap management results.

In conclusion, Interest-sensitive gap management and duration gap management are two methods employed by banks to manage interest rate risk. The two strategies have their benefits and limitations. Limitations of both methods include their reliance on the parallel shift assumption and oversimplification of the measuring process.

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A bond has a $1,000 par value, 8 years to maturity, and a 7% annual coupon and sells for $980. a.What is its yield to maturity (YTM)? Round your answer to two decimal places. b.Assume that the yield to maturity remains constant for the next 2 years. What will the price be 2 years from today? Round your answer to the nearest cent.

Answers

The yield to maturity (YTM) of a bond is calculated using a formula that considers the bond's coupon rate, par value, time to maturity, and current market price. The formula is used to compute the rate at which the bond's future cash flows (coupons and principal) are discounted to their present value to determine the market price.

The yield to maturity is the rate that equates the market price of a bond to its present value of cash flows.

Therefore, to calculate the yield to maturity of the bond, we use the following formula:

YTM = (C + (F - P) / n) / ((F + P) / 2)

where:

C = coupon payment F = face value P = price of the bond n = years to maturity of the bond, In this case, C = $70, F = $1,000, P = $980, and n = 8 years.

Using the above formula, the yield to maturity of the bond is calculated as follows:

YTM = (70 + (1000 - 980) / 8) / ((1000 + 980) / 2)YTM = (70 + 20 / 8) / 990YTM = 0.0809 or 8.09%.

Therefore, the yield to maturity of the bond is 8.09%.

The price of a bond is influenced by several factors, including market conditions, interest rates, credit quality of the issuer, and time to maturity. When interest rates rise, bond prices generally fall because new bonds with higher yields become more attractive to investors, reducing the demand for existing bonds with lower yields. In this case, the bond is currently selling below its par value, indicating that the market interest rate is higher than the bond's coupon rate of 7%. When the yield to maturity is less than the coupon rate, the bond sells at a premium (above par value), and when the yield to maturity is greater than the coupon rate, the bond sells at a discount (below par value). Since the yield to maturity of the bond is 8.09%, it is selling at a discount. The current market price of the bond is $980, which is below the face value of $1,000.

Assuming that the yield to maturity remains constant for the next 2 years, we can calculate the price of the bond using the present value formula as follows:

PV = C / (1 + r) + C / (1 + r)² + ... + C / (1 + r)^n + F / (1 + r)^n

where: C = coupon payment F = face valuer = yield to maturity n = years to maturity of the bond In this case, C = $70, F = $1,000, r = 8.09%, and n = 6 years (2 years from today).

Using the above formula, the present value of the bond is calculated as follows:

PV = 70 / (1 + 0.0809) + 70 / (1 + 0.0809)² + ... + 70 / (1 + 0.0809)^6 + 1000 / (1 + 0.0809)^6PV = $1,017.45

Therefore, the price of the bond 2 years from today, assuming a constant yield to maturity, will be $1,017.45.

The yield to maturity of the bond is 8.09%, and the price of the bond 2 years from today, assuming a constant yield to maturity, will be $1,017.45.

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a) the approximate yield to maturity (YTM) of the bond is 7.32%. b) the price of the bond 2 years from today would be approximately $756.96.

How to calculate the the price be 2 years from today

a. To calculate the yield to maturity (YTM) of the bond, we need to find the discount rate that equates the present value of the bond's cash flows (coupon payments and par value) to its current price.

We can use a financial calculator or an Excel spreadsheet to calculate the YTM. However, I will provide you with the approximate calculation using a financial formula.

YTM = (Annual coupon payment + (Par value - Current price) / Years to maturity) / ((Par value + Current price) / 2)

= (70 + (1,000 - 980) / 8) / ((1,000 + 980) / 2)

≈ (70 + 2.5) / (990) ≈ 72.5 / 990 ≈ 0.07323 or 7.32%

Therefore, the approximate yield to maturity (YTM) of the bond is 7.32%.

b. To calculate the price of the bond 2 years from today, we need to discount the bond's future cash flows (coupon payments and par value) at the YTM.

Given that the YTM remains constant for the next 2 years, the price of the bond can be calculated using the following formula:

Price = (Annual coupon payment / (1 + YTM)^2) + (Par value / (1 + YTM)^8)

Using the YTM calculated in part a (0.07323 or 7.32%), we can calculate the price:

Price = (70 / (1 + 0.07323)^2) + (1,000 / (1 + 0.07323)^8)

≈ 62.46 + 694.50

≈ $756.96

Therefore, the price of the bond 2 years from today would be approximately $756.96.

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