According to the question, In 5 years, you would have $10,070.71. In 10 years, you would have $13,506.62. In 20 years, you would have $23,947.45 in your bank account.
What is bank account?A bank account is a financial record of a customer’s money held at a financial institution. It allows customers to keep their money safe and also provides them with access to credit and other services. Bank accounts can be opened with a variety of financial institutions, including banks, credit unions, and online-only banks.
In 5 years, you would have $10,070.71. This is calculated by taking the compound interest formula A = P(1+r/n)^(nt) where A is the future value, P is the present value (7000), r is the interest rate (6.7%), n is the number of times compounded per year (365), and t is the number of years (5).
In 10 years, you would have $13,506.62. This is calculated by taking the compound interest formula A = P(1+r/n)^(nt) where A is the future value, P is the present value (7000), r is the interest rate (6.7%), n is the number of times compounded per year (365), and t is the number of years (10).
In 20 years, you would have $23,947.45. This is calculated by taking the compound interest formula A = P(1+r/n)^(nt) where A is the future value, P is the present value (7000), r is the interest rate (6.7%), n is the number of times compounded per year (365), and t is the number of years (20).
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In 2019, Mary had the following items:
Salary $30,000
Personal use casualty gain 10,000
Personal use casualty loss (after $100 floor)
Business Casualty Loss 17,000
4,000
Other itemized deductions 21,000
Assuming that Mary files as head of household (has one dependent child), determine her taxable income for 2019. None of the casualty items relate to a Federally declared disaster area. What is Mary’s casualty loss deduction?
Mary's taxable income for 2019 can be calculated as follows below steps: Therefore, Mary's casualty loss deduction for 2019 is $2,890.
Here Total income = Salary + Personal use casualty gain = $30,000 + $10,000 = $40,000
Adjusted gross income (AGI) = Total income - Personal use casualty loss = $40,000 - ($4,000 + $100) = $35,900
Itemized deductions = Business Casualty Loss + Other itemized deductions = $17,000 + $21,000 = $38,000
Since Mary is filing as head of household, her standard deduction for 2019 is $18,350.
Taxable income = AGI - Itemized deductions - Standard deduction = $35,900 - $38,000 - $18,350 = -$20,450
Mary's taxable income is negative, which means that she has a tax loss for the year. However, since tax losses cannot be used to offset non-business income, Mary's taxable income is considered to be zero for the year.
Mary's casualty loss deduction can be calculated as follows:
Casualty loss deduction = Personal use casualty loss - 10% AGI = ($4,000 - $100) - (10% x $35,900) = $2,890
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Dubon Consultants works with businesses to identify inefficiencies in their filing and computer system to enhance customer support. Dubon Consultants is an example of a ________ company.
A. marketing
B. manufacturing
C. merchandising
D. service
Dubon Consultants is an example of a service company. A service company provides services rather than physical goods.
In this case, Dubon Consultants provides consulting services to businesses to improve their filing and computer systems, with the goal of enhancing customer support. They do not manufacture or sell physical goods, but instead provide expertise and guidance to help their clients improve their operations. Dubon Consultants is an example of a D. service company. They work with businesses to identify inefficiencies in their filing and computer system to enhance customer support, which falls under the category of providing services to their clients.
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NOT part of net investment income for purposes of calculating the Net Investment Income tax?
Veteran's benefits Interest income Passive activity income
Annuity income
Veteran's benefits and annuity income are not part of net investment income for purposes of calculating the Net Investment Income tax.
The Net Investment Income tax is a 3.8% tax on certain investment income for taxpayers with adjusted gross income above a certain threshold. The investment income subject to this tax includes interest, dividends, capital gains, rental income, and passive activity income.
While interest income and passive activity income are part of net investment income subject to the tax, veteran's benefits and annuity income are generally excluded. Veteran's benefits are typically not considered investment income, as they are payments made to veterans and their families for their service to the country. Similarly, annuity income may be excluded from net investment income if it is considered a return of capital rather than a return on investment.
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A time series is said to exhibit an additive seasonality a) when the seasonal fluctuations vary depending on the overall level of the time series b) when the time series is stationary c) when the time series is contaminated by irregular interventions such as promotions d) when the seasonal fluctuations vary Independently of the overall level of the time series
The correct answer is option d) when the seasonal fluctuations vary independently of the overall level of the time series.
In time series analysis, seasonal patterns are often present, and they refer to regular fluctuations that occur during specific periods, such as monthly or quarterly. Seasonality can be either additive or multiplicative. When the seasonal fluctuations vary independently of the overall level of the time series, this is known as additive seasonality. Interventions refer to unexpected or irregular events that occur during the time series, such as promotions, natural disasters, or economic crises. They can affect the overall level of the time series or disrupt its seasonal patterns. Therefore, option c) is incorrect because interventions are not a characteristic of seasonal patterns, but rather irregular events that can affect any aspect of the time series.
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The correct answer is d) when the seasonal fluctuations vary independently of the overall level of the time series. Additive seasonality refers to the pattern of seasonal fluctuations that are added to the overall level of a time series. Interventions, such as promotions or changes in marketing strategy, can disrupt this pattern and cause irregular fluctuations. Seasonal fluctuations can also vary in intensity depending on the overall level of the time series, but this is known as multiplicative seasonality. Understanding the type of seasonality present in a time series is important for accurately forecasting future trends and implementing effective interventions.
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which is the best function stub for a function that calculates an item's tax?
A function called "calculateTax" that accepts the item's price as an input and returns the computed tax amount would be the finest function stub for a function that computes an item's tax.
The best function stub for a function that calculates an item's tax would be a function named "calculateTax" that takes in the price of the item as a parameter and returns the calculated tax amount. The function should have a clear and descriptive name that indicates its purpose, and it should perform the necessary calculations to determine the appropriate tax based on the applicable tax rate.
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There is a choice to buy a car worth $28,000 with 100% financing at 4.99% APR for 60 month or lease at $450 per month. The car will need maintenance in the 3rd year worth $525 and $825 in the 4th year. The car will have 35% residual value in the 5th year. Sales tax on new car is 6% and required rate of return is 5%.
a) Calculate the Ownership Operating Advantage in year 5.
b) Calculate the Ownership Operating Advantage in year 4.
c) Which option is better?
There is a choice to buy a car worth $28,000 with depreciation 100% financing at 4.99% APR for 60 month or lease at $450 per month. The correct answer is b) Calculate the Ownership Operating Advantage in year 4.
The car will be worth $7340 after six years.
The formula A = P(1- r/100)n can be used to compute the depreciation, where A is the amount, P is the principal, r is the rate of depreciation, and n is the duration.
The answer to the question states that the car's worth (P) is $28,000.
Depreciation rate (r) is 20% per year for a duration (t) of six years.
the values in the depreciation formula are substituted, and we obtain,
Amount is equal to 28000*
(1 - 20/100)°,
28000*(80/100)°,
28000*(0.80)°,
28000*0.26214,
which equals 7339.92 7340.
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describe differences (if any) between equilibrium in the stackelberg model and the cournot model in an oligopolistic market.
The primary differences between equilibrium in the Stackelberg model and the Cournot model in an oligopolistic market are related to the leadership dynamics and strategic interactions of the firms.
In the Stackelberg model, there is a dominant firm (the leader) that sets its output level first, followed by the other firms (the followers) adjusting their output levels based on the leader's decision. The leader takes into account the reaction of the followers when setting its output. This sequential decision-making process results in a higher market share and profit for the leader, while the followers are left to maximize their profit given the leader's decision.
In the Cournot model, firms simultaneously choose their output levels without any hierarchy or leadership. They make decisions based on the assumption that their competitors' output levels remain constant. This model results in an equilibrium where each firm's output is determined by the best response to the other firms' output choices, leading to a Nash equilibrium.
In summary, the key differences between the Stackelberg and Cournot models in an oligopolistic market lie in the leadership dynamics and decision-making process. The Stackelberg model involves a dominant leader followed by follower firms, while the Cournot model has firms making simultaneous decisions without leadership.
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amelia is sorting invertebrates collected in a biodiversity survey and encountered an animal with a segmented body plan. to which group of animals does it belong?
a.mollusks
b.annellids
c.cnidarians
d.roundworms
Amelia encountered an animal with a segmented body plan among the invertebrates collected in a biodiversity survey. This animal belongs to the group of animals known as annelids. So the correct answer is:
b. Annelids
Annelids belong to the phylum annelida in the kingdom Animalia. They are invertebrates. They are triploblastic, coelomate, bilaterally symmetrical and metamerically segmented animals. The body shape is generally elongated, cylindrical or flattened. They have a closed circulatory system. Each segment in their body has a separate coelom and this coelom acts as a hydraulic skeleton that allows movement of the body. They have nephridia for excretion and osmoregulation. Examples of annelids are Nereis, Pheretima, etc.
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All of the following are ways that an employer uses pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions as a basis for treating an employee in a discriminatory manner, except: O The employer refuses to provide lighter duty assignments to a pregnant employee, even though those assignments are routinely given to other nonpregnant employees who are temporarily disabled O The employer produces evidence that it will be too costly to provide benefits to pregnant employees because the employer would have to find someone to fill the pregnant employee's position and pay them.O None of these are a basis for treating an employee in a discriminatory manner. O All of these are a basis for treating an employee in a discriminatory manner. O The employer refuses to interview or hire pregnant employees or those who have recently given birth. O The employer reduces the hours of a pregnant employee, making her ineligible for employer paid health insurance
The option that is not a way that an employer uses pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions as a basis for treating an employee in a discriminatory manner is: "None of these are a basis for treating an employee in a discriminatory manner."
Pregnancy discrimination occurs when an employer treats a pregnant employee or job applicant unfairly due to pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act (PDA) of 1978 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees or job applicants based on these factors.
The other options listed are all ways that an employer could use pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions as a basis for treating an employee in a discriminatory manner. For example, refusing to provide lighter duty assignments to a pregnant employee, reducing the hours of a pregnant employee, or refusing to interview or hire pregnant employees are all forms of pregnancy discrimination. Additionally, an employer cannot use the cost of providing benefits to pregnant employees as a reason for discriminating against them.
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most fixed manufacturing costs are controlled by production supervisors. question content area bottom part 1 true false
Production supervisors are typically responsible for managing variable costs, such as labor and materials, to control the overall cost of production. The statement is False.
Most fixed manufacturing costs, such as rent and equipment, are not directly controlled by production supervisors. They are typically set by upper management or the finance department and cannot be easily adjusted in the short term.
Cost of production supervisors is responsible for managing variable costs that can be directly controlled, such as labor and materials, to minimize waste and optimize productivity. Fixed costs, on the other hand, are typically predetermined and cannot be adjusted easily in the short term. Upper management or the finance department is typically responsible for setting fixed costs, such as rent, equipment, and insurance.
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Which of the following is not an assumption of perfect competition?
A. many firms
B. many buyers
C. restrictions on entry into the market
D. each firm sells an identical product
The right response is C. barriers to entry into the market. Businesses operating in monopolistic markets or monopolies must contend with a downward-sloping demand curve.
Are there numerous enterprises in ideal competition?A market with perfect competition is one with many enterprises and no dominant player. No market is entirely monopolistic or completely competitive in the actual world.
What qualities define the ideal competition firm?Perfect competition is characterised by three key factors: (1) the absence of any significant market dominance; (2) standardisation of industry output; and (3) freedom of entry and exit. If there is perfect competition, the efficient market equilibrium occurs when marginal revenue and marginal cost are equal.
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why was the civilian conservation corps established? * 1 point to aid farmers/agricultural workers to create employment opportunities to protect industrial workers to secure the safety of the banks
The Civilian Conservation Corps (CCC) was established to create employment opportunities. Although it did not directly focus on industrial workers, banks, or agriculture, its primary goal was to provide jobs and engage in environmental conservation projects during the Great Depression.
The civilian conservation corps was established to aid unemployed young men during the Great Depression. The program aimed to create employment opportunities by focusing on conservation and natural resource management projects. The primary goal was to protect and restore the nation's natural resources while simultaneously providing work for those who were struggling financially. The program did not directly target farmers or agricultural workers, but it did provide employment opportunities for them. The program's primary focus was on improving parks, forests, and other public lands. It did not directly aim to protect industrial workers or secure the safety of banks.
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ebit is another term for blank . multiple choice question. income after taxes residual income net operating income operating assets
The correct answer is "net operating income." EBIT stands for "earnings before interest and taxes," which is another term for net operating income.
EBIT is an acronym for Earnings Before Interest and Taxes. It is a measure of a company's profitability that looks at operating earnings before the deductions of interest expenses and taxes. EBIT is often used by analysts and investors as a way to evaluate a company's operating performance without the impact of financing and tax decisions. It can also be helpful in comparing the profitability of different companies within the same industry.
EBIT is not the same as net operating income, which is a measure of a company's operating income after all operating expenses, including taxes and interest, have been deducted. Residual income, on the other hand, is the amount of income that remains after all expenses have been paid, including financing and capital costs. Operating assets are the assets that a company uses in its core business operations.
Overall, EBIT is an important financial metric that can provide valuable insight into a company's financial health and performance, particularly when used in conjunction with other measures of profitability and financial analysis tools.
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Suppose demand for labor is given by the equation P = 75 - 2Q and the supply for labor is given by the equation P = 15 + 4Q. Price is the hourly wage rate in dollars and quantity measures the number of workers. Imposing a minimum wage of $70 will result in Labor shortage of 0 and firms will hire 10 None of the above. Labor surplus of 15 and firms will hire 20 workers Unemployment of 0 and firms will hire 15
To analyze the impact of a minimum wage of $70, we first need to find the equilibrium wage and quantity of labor without the minimum wage.
Imposing a minimum wage of $70 will result in none of the above outcomes.
To find the equilibrium quantity of labor, we set the demand and supply equations equal to each other:
75 - 2Q = 15 + 4Q
Solving for Q, we get Q = 15.
Substituting Q = 15 into either the demand or supply equation, we get the equilibrium price of P = $45.
Since the minimum wage of $70 is higher than the equilibrium wage of $45, it will create a surplus of labor, meaning there will be more workers willing to work at the higher wage than there are firms willing to hire at that wage.
To find the quantity of the surplus, we subtract the equilibrium quantity (Q = 15) from the quantity supplied at the minimum wage:
Qs = 15 + 4(70) = 295
Surplus = Qs - Q = 295 - 15 = 280
Therefore, imposing a minimum wage of $70 will result in a labor surplus of 280 and firms will hire 15 workers.
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Suppose demand for labor is given by the equation P = 75 - 2Q and the supply for labor is given by the equation P = 15 + 4Q. Price is the hourly wage rate in dollars and quantity measures the number of workers. Imposing a minimum wage of $70 will result in
Labor shortage of 0 and firms will hire 10
None of the above.
Labor surplus of 15 and firms will hire 20 workers
Unemployment of 0 and firms will hire 15
Which of the following occurs when private information is a market problem?
Group of answer choices
Excessive trust levels lead to a higher quantity than would be efficient.
Low trust levels lead to a lower quantity than would be efficient.
Exploitation leads to more producers than would be desirable.
Overproduction leads to lower prices than would be desirable.
When private information is a market problem, low trust levels lead to a lower quantity than would be efficient. The correct answer is option b.
Private information refers to information that is known only to a subset of market participants, such as information about the quality of a good or the cost of production. In the presence of private information, buyers may not be willing to pay a high price for a good, and sellers may not be willing to produce and sell as much as they would if they had full information.
Low trust levels arise when buyers do not trust that sellers are offering high-quality goods or are charging fair prices, or when sellers do not trust that buyers will pay the agreed-upon price
As a result, buyers may purchase fewer goods than they would if they had full trust in the market, and sellers may produce and sell fewer goods than they would if they had full trust in the market.
This leads to a suboptimal market outcome in which the quantity of goods produced and sold is lower than the efficient level.
The correct answer is option b.
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Complete question
Which of the following occurs when private information is a market problem?
Group of answer choices
a. Excessive trust levels lead to a higher quantity than would be efficient.
b. Low trust levels lead to a lower quantity than would be efficient.
c. Exploitation leads to more producers than would be desirable.
d. Overproduction leads to lower prices than would be desirable
When private information is a market problem, low trust levels lead to a lower quantity than would be efficient. The correct answer is option b.
Private information refers to information that is known only to a subset of market participants, such as information about the quality of a good or the cost of production. In the presence of private information, buyers may not be willing to pay a high price for a good, and sellers may not be willing to produce and sell as much as they would if they had full information.
Low trust levels arise when buyers do not trust that sellers are offering high-quality goods or are charging fair prices, or when sellers do not trust that buyers will pay the agreed-upon price
As a result, buyers may purchase fewer goods than they would if they had full trust in the market, and sellers may produce and sell fewer goods than they would if they had full trust in the market.
This leads to a suboptimal market outcome in which the quantity of goods produced and sold is lower than the efficient level.
The correct answer is option b.
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Complete question
Which of the following occurs when private information is a market problem?
Group of answer choices
a. Excessive trust levels lead to a higher quantity than would be efficient.
b. Low trust levels lead to a lower quantity than would be efficient.
c. Exploitation leads to more producers than would be desirable.
d. Overproduction leads to lower prices than would be desirable
Cole, a financial advisor, has told his clients the following things. Which of his statements is not correct? O "U.S. government bonds generally pay a higher rate of interest than corporate bonds." " O "If you purchase a municipal bond, you can sell it before it matures." O "The interest received on corporate bonds is taxable." O "U.S. government bonds have the lowest default risk."
The statement that is not correct is: "If you purchase a municipal bond, you can sell it before it matures." Municipal bonds are typically issued with a maturity date, and while they can be sold before they mature, it may result in a loss or gain depending on market conditions.
The statement that is not correct is: "If you purchase a municipal bond, you can sell it before it matures." Municipal bonds are typically issued with a maturity date, and while they can be sold before they mature, it may result in a loss or gain depending on market conditions. It's important for individuals to speak with their financial advisor to understand the risks and potential gains associated with buying and selling municipal bonds. Additionally, financial advisors can help clients understand the tax implications of investing in different types of bonds, as well as the potential risks and rewards associated with investing in government versus corporate bonds.
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In the early years of an asset's life, a firm using the double-declining balance method, as compared to a firm using straight-line depreciation, will report higher a. tax expense b. operating cash flow c. operating income
The correct answer is a. tax expense. When using the double-declining balance method, the depreciation expense is higher in the early years of an asset's life compared to the straight-line method. This results in a lower taxable income, which in turn reduces the tax expense.
However, in later years, the opposite may occur as the depreciation expense decreases rapidly with the double-declining method, resulting in higher taxable income and tax expense.
In the early years of an asset's life, a firm using the double-declining balance method, as compared to a firm using straight-line depreciation, will report higher operating income. This is because the double-declining method results in larger depreciation expenses initially, which reduces taxable income and tax expense, leading to higher operating income.
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what is the future value of $3,325 per year for 20 years at an interest rate of 7.29 percent?
The future value of $3,325 per year for 20 years at an interest rate of 7.29 per cent can be calculated using the formula for the future value of an annuity. This formula is:
FV = Pmt x (((1 + r)^n) - 1) / r
Where:
FV = Future Value
Pmt = Payment per period
r = Interest rate per period
n = Number of periods
In this case, Pmt is $3,325, r is 7.29% per year (or 0.0729 per year), and n is 20 years. We need to convert the interest rate to a per-period rate by dividing it by the number of compounding periods per year. Assuming annual compounding, the per-period rate is 7.29%/1 = 7.29% per year.
Substituting these values into the formula, we get:
FV = $3,325 x (((1 + 0.0729)^20) - 1) / 0.0729
FV = $3,325 x (4.583 - 1) / 0.0729
FV = $3,325 x 45.778
FV = $152,402.15
Therefore, the future value of $3,325 per year for 20 years at an interest rate of 7.29 per cent is $152,402.15.
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A smoker who claims that the habit is not as dangerous as antismoking messages suggest, saying "My grandmother smokes and she's in her 80s," is attempting to reduce cognitive dissonance.
True or false
True, When a smoker says, "My grandmother smokes and she's in her 80s," they are seeking to lessen cognitive dissonance by asserting that smoking is not as harmful as anti-smoking messaging indicate.
What is cognitive dissonance, and how would one define it?Cognitive dissonance, which is a sensation of discomfort, is brought on when two or more thinking processes clash with one another. Some instances of contradictory cognitions include beliefs, attitudes, and awareness that one has behaved a certain manner.
Cognitive dissonance is the unease a person feels when their behavior goes against their values or beliefs. Moreover, it can occur if a person has two opposing beliefs at once. Cognitive dissonance is not an illness, condition, or trait. That is a psychological phenomenon, thus anybody might go through it.
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research evidence shows that targets of hostile bids have higher debt and inside ownership and lower liquidity and debt capacity.
The given statement "research evidence shows that targets of hostile bids have higher debt and inside ownership and lower liquidity and debt capacity." is true becaue research evidence shows that targets of hostile bids tend to have higher debt levels and inside ownership,
It means that managers and insiders hold a greater percentage of the company's stock. This can make the company less attractive to potential bidders as insiders may be less willing to sell their shares. Additionally, targets of hostile bids tend to have lower liquidity, which means that their shares may be harder to buy and sell quickly. Finally, targets of hostile bids tend to have lower debt capacity, which means that they may have difficulty raising funds to defend against the bid.
"
Complete question
Research evidence shows that targets of hostile bids have higher debt and inside ownership and lower liquidity and debt capacity.
True
False
"
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confirmations are ordinarily used to verify account balances, but may be used to verify transactions. question content area bottom part 1 true false
Confirmations are ordinarily used to verify account balances, but may be used to verify transactions.
How the confirmations are ordinarily used to verify account balances?
Accounts receivable confirmations must be controlled by the client from the time they are prepared until the time they are returned to the auditor.Confirmations are ordinarily used to verify account balances, but they may also be used to verify transactions. In the context of the content area at the bottom part 1, This section does not address the extent or timing of confirmation procedures. Guidance on the extent of audit procedures (that is, considerations involved in determining the number of items to confirm) is found in section 350, Audit Sampling, and Auditing Standard No. 13, The Auditor's Responses to the Risks of Material Misstatement. Guidance on the timing of audit procedures is included in Auditing Standard No. 13, The Auditor's Responses to the Risks of Material Misstatement. this statement is True.
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How can Sue create context in which Candace will support Bow Wow's strategic objectives? Check all that apply. If certaln employees who tend to be short with customers do not Improve, Sue can give Candace a written reprimand. whenever Sue sees Candace being impatient with a staff member because she is busy and stressed out, Sue can sympathize with Candace to try to help her feel better. Sue can work with Candace to develop measures of how frequently she gives her employees feedback and the response to that feed back Sue can respectfully coach Candace on the impact her impatience has on employee morale and performance
In order for Sue to create a context in which Candace will support Bow Wow's strategic objectives, she can take several approaches.
One approach is to work with Candace to develop measures of how frequently she gives her employees feedback and the response to that feedback. This will help Candace to be more effective in her role as a leader and to understand the impact that her actions have on employee morale and performance.
Another approach is to respectfully coach Candace on the impact her impatience has on employee morale and performance. By doing so, Sue can help Candace to be more mindful of her behavior and to make positive changes that will benefit the organization.
Additionally, whenever Sue sees Candace being impatient with a staff member because she is busy and stressed out, Sue can sympathize with Candace to try to help her feel better. This will help Candace to feel supported and valued, which can increase her motivation to support Bow Wow's strategic objectives.
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A student is fixing flat tires to earn spending money. The student can fix 25 tires in 1 hour 40 minutes. What is the student's productivity? Productivity = Outputs / Inputs Efficiency = 100% (Actual Outputs / Standard Outputs) A. 15.000 tires/minute B. 0.250 tires/minute C. 25.625 tires/minute D. 4.000 tires/minute E. 0.067 tires/minute
To determine the student's productivity in fixing flat tires, we will use the formula Productivity = Outputs / Inputs. In this case, the student can fix 25 tires in 1 hour and 40 minutes. First, we need to convert 1 hour and 40 minutes to minutes:
1 hour = 60 minutes
40 minutes = 40 minutes
Total = 60 + 40 = 100 minutes
Now, we can calculate the student's productivity:
Productivity = Outputs / Inputs
Productivity = 25 tires / 100 minutes
Productivity = 0.25 tires/minute
So, the student's productivity is 0.25 tires/minute, which corresponds to option B.
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To determine the student's productivity in fixing flat tires, we will use the formula Productivity = Outputs / Inputs. In this case, the student can fix 25 tires in 1 hour and 40 minutes. First, we need to convert 1 hour and 40 minutes to minutes:
1 hour = 60 minutes
40 minutes = 40 minutes
Total = 60 + 40 = 100 minutes
Now, we can calculate the student's productivity:
Productivity = Outputs / Inputs
Productivity = 25 tires / 100 minutes
Productivity = 0.25 tires/minute
So, the student's productivity is 0.25 tires/minute, which corresponds to option B.
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Which performance appraisal system is best suited for an organization pursuing a differentiation strategy? a. A parity-based system with forced distribution. b. A merit-based system with forced distribution. c. A parity-based system with free distribution. d. A merit-based system with free distribution.
The best performance appraisal system for an organization pursuing a differentiation strategy would be a merit-based system with free distribution. Option d is answer.
This is because in a differentiation strategy, the organization seeks to distinguish itself from competitors by providing unique and high-quality products or services. Therefore, it is important to identify and reward top performers who contribute to this differentiation. A merit-based system allows for individual performance to be evaluated and rewarded accordingly, while free distribution ensures that there are no limitations on the number of high performers who can receive recognition and rewards.
A parity-based system, on the other hand, may not effectively differentiate top performers and could discourage high performers from continuing to strive for excellence. A forced distribution system, whether parity-based or merit-based, may also limit the number of employees who can be recognized as high performers, which could hinder the organization's differentiation efforts.
Thus, option d is answer.
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discuss the pros and cons to customizing the system? do-case us army
Low costs, quicker and easier updates, and continued complete vendor support are benefits of utilizing a Vanilla (non-customized) implementation style.
The disadvantage of this approach is that a business has little control over functionality and is forced to select from "out of the box" procedures and functionalities. Having a rigorous ERP system forces an organization to undertake adjustments frequently. Customizations entail writing unique code for the software in order to offer additional capabilities.
On the other hand, configurations are ways to alter data fields, workflows, and other parameters without modifying the main code. ERP software customization is the process of molding an existing platform-based or custom enterprise resource planning system in accordance with an owners' vision through significant coding adjustments.
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1. Small enterprises that have a strictly cash-based operation sometimes just use the to record all transactions.
A. Reports B. Invoice form C. Purchase Order form D. check Register
2. One way to use QuickBooks Online to record money coming in to a company is
A. purchase order B. sales reciept C. Bank withdrawl D. none
3. Which transaction types should be recorded using the Bank Deposit form ? A. Cash received from loans. B. Other income . C. Interest earned . D. All of the choices are correct
1. Small enterprises that have a strictly cash-based operation sometimes just use the check Register to record all transactions. 2. One way to use QuickBooks Online to record money coming in to a company is sales receipt. 3. All of the choices are correct (Cash received from loans, Other income, and Interest earned) should be recorded using the Bank Deposit form
Small businesses that run entirely on cash may keep track of all transactions, including cash and check payments, in a check register. Businesses can monitor their cash inputs and outflows by using a check register, a document or ledger. Popular accounting program QuickBooks Online can be used to track and manage a business's financial activities. A sales receipt is one way to utilize QuickBooks Online to record money coming into a business. Regardless of the source of the cash, any deposit made to a company's bank account must be documented using the Bank Deposit form. This covers any other sort of deposit as well as funds received through loans (option A), other income (option B), and interest earned (option C). Businesses may precisely record and track their deposits using the bank deposit form, which is crucial for maintaining accurate financial records and controlling cash flow.
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We are less than one month from Prime Day! Glad to hear that you've narrowed your selection down to two products. I've included the current amount that is in stock for the two items in question-- this lines up with the deal forecasts (see table below):
Product Amount in stock Replenishment Lead Time
Product A 120 units Within 6 weeks
Product B 230 units Immediately
• Product A will cost Amazon $500/unit with an additional $125/unit in funding from the vendor for Amazon and a deal price to the customer = $500
• Product B will cost Amazon $400/unit with an additional $100/unit in funding from the vendor for Amazon and a deal price to the customer = $400
FYI. Below is the projected probability that Amazon will completely sell out of all in stock inventory for a specific product (also defined as sell-through confidence).
Product Sell-Through Confidence
Product A 100%
Product B 80%
Question
Which product should you select for your category for the highest visibility deals spot? Select one (1) response option.
Product A
Product B
Can't tell from the info provided?
Given that Product B has a reduced cost to Amazon, more funding from the vendor, and a high sell-through confidence of 80%, it should be chosen for the highest visibility deals area.
How do consumers become eligible for Amazon Prime Day?Every year, Prime Day is a global sale that lasts for two days and is only open to Amazon Prime subscribers. Shoppers can anticipate high savings during this sale in a variety of categories, including beauty, tech, home, fashion, kitchen, and more.
On Prime Day, how much does Amazon sell?Prime Day 2021 broke historical records for sales with more than 250 million products sold. Only 175 million goods were sold on Prime Day 2020.
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Even though it is now showing signs of difficulties, in what way has MillerCoors already beat the odds? a. It has been able to substantially reduce costs. b. It has been able to both create value for customers and reduce operating costs. c. It has increased market share for its main products. d. It has been successful for its first six years.
The correct answer is b. MillerCoors has been able to both create value for customers and reduce operating costs.
Despite facing difficulties, the company has managed to beat the odds by focusing on improving the overall customer experience while also finding ways to cut costs and operate more efficiently.
This has allowed MillerCoors to remain competitive in the market and attract new customers, while also keeping existing customers satisfied with their products and services.
While they may not have necessarily increased their market share, they have still managed to maintain a strong position in the market and remain successful for their first six years.
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based on the following information: Assume the six-month European call option has a striking price of $0.95/CHF. Assume the option premium is $0.02/CHF What is the breakeven price of this call option? $0.95/CHF $0.93/CHF o $0.97/CHF o cannot be determined
Based on the given information, the breakeven price of this call option can be calculated by adding the option premium to the striking price. In this case, the striking price is $0.95/CHF and the option premium is $0.02/CHF. Breakeven price = Striking price + Option premium Breakeven price = $0.95/CHF + $0.02/CHF Breakeven price = $0.97/CHF, So, the breakeven price of this call option is $0.97/CHF.
The price at which sales precisely cover all related expenses is known as the break-even point for a good or service. This indicates that at the break-even pricing, a business is neither making a profit nor suffering a loss. By taking into account both fixed costs (like rent and equipment) and variable costs (like labor and raw materials) incurred during the creation and sale of the good or service, the break-even price is calculated.
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If you deposit a $50 check in the bank, the immediate impact on your bank's balance sheet will be a
$50 decrease in reserves and a $50 increase in checkable deposits.
$50 increase in reserves and a $50 increase in checkable deposits.
$50 increase in reserves and a $50 decrease in checkable deposits.
$50 decrease in liabilities and a $50 increase in checkable deposits.
The impact will be a $50 increase in reserves and a $50 increase in checkable deposits.
When you deposit a check in the bank, the bank adds the amount to your account balance, increasing the checkable deposits. At the same time, the bank increases its reserves, which is the portion of deposits that the bank holds in cash or deposits at the Federal Reserve. This helps the bank meet its reserve requirements and enables it to make loans and invest in securities.
Therefore, the immediate impact on the bank's balance sheet is a $50 increase in reserves and a $50 increase in checkable deposits.
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