(6. solve for x )
225 multiplyed by 1/3 = x

Answer:

The zeros the polynomial :

X=(1/2 , –5)

Answer:

B and C

Step-by-step explanation:

The square for the function; [tex]y = x^2 + 6x +7[/tex] . Hence, the Vertex form of the function is [tex](x + 3)^2 - 2[/tex]. The function will be zero at  x = 3- √E

A system of equations is two or more equations that can be solved to

get a unique solution. the power of the equation must be in one degree.

The square for the function;

[tex]y = x^2 + 6x +7[/tex]

Minimum = -2 at x = -3

Hence, the Vertex form of the function is [tex](x + 3)^2 - 2[/tex].

The function will be zero at  x = 3- √E

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Answer:

28

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\sqrt{100} + (\sqrt{9} \cdot \sqrt{36}) = 10 + (3 \cdot 6) = 10 + 18 = 28[/tex]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:
im smart.

Answer:

There are 18 crayons, and 3 baskets. Each basket has the same number of crayons. Therefore, we divide 18 into 3 different groups (each group = each basket). So, we have 18 ÷ 3, which is 6.

So, there are 6 crayons in each basket.

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

pN = 64/100 = 0,64 = 64%

pW = 80/100 = 0,8 = 80%

The planes of Waxwing airlines are more punctual

Answer:

Probability of three chip being defective is 0.012

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of a computer chip being defective is 0.08 or 8%

Total random sample = 20

Probability of three chip being defective = 3/20 * 0.08

= 0.012

Answer:

B) 0.14

Step-by-step explanation:

N=20

K=3

P=0.08

CoE= 1140

1140 x (0.08)^3 x (.92)^17

1140 x (0.000512) x (0.2423) = 0.141425 or B

Answer:

Propiedades del MCM de 8 y 56

Resumiendo, el mcm de 8 y 56 es 56. Se escribe como: mcm (8,56) = 56

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Can't really read that but these would work

f = 12h

h = f/12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

than originally shared this meeting will

Answer:

x=6, y=5 1/3 or 5.3333

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

6a 6b

2 / 3

30 / x

30×3  / 2

90/2

=45

Answer:

(1, 36)

Step-by-step explanation:

Degrees of freedom for the F-test of the two way ANOVA

Here, we use a two factors, independent measures ANOVA, where, factor [tex]A[/tex] has 2 level and a factor [tex]B[/tex] also has 2 levels.

So, here,

[tex]$k_1$[/tex] = number of levels of A = 2

[tex]k_2[/tex] = number of levels of B = 2

And n = sample size in each treatment condition = 10

So we have,

[tex]d_1[/tex] = df of the main effect A = ([tex]$k_1$[/tex] - 1) = 2 - 1 = 1

[tex]d_2[/tex] = df of the main effect A = ([tex]$k_2$[/tex] - 1) = 2 - 1 = 1

[tex]d_3[/tex] = df of interaction effect (A x B) = ([tex]$k_1$[/tex] - 1)([tex]$k_2$[/tex] - 1)

                                                        = (2-1)(2-1)

                                                         = 1

And [tex]d_4[/tex] = df of within variation (i.e. error variation) = [tex]$k_1k_2(n-1)$[/tex]

                                                                                 = 2 x 2 x (10 - 1)

                                                                                  = 36

So, the df value for the F-ratio evaluating the main effect of factors-A is

=  ([tex]d_1, d_4[/tex])

= (1, 36)

Answer: A. 384 sq. mm

Step-by-step explanation: The area for the square is 12x12 or 144. The area for a triangle is base x height x 1/2. Therefore, that would be 12 x 10 x 1/2 or 60. There are 4 sides to this pyramid, so 60 x 4 = 240. We then add 144 and 240 to get 384 sq. mm.

Answer:

DF = 9.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Given 2 secants from an external point to the circle, then

The product of the external part and the whole of one secant is equal to the product of the external part and the whole of the other secant, that is

DE × DF = DC × DB

5(5 + x) = 5(5 + 4.5) ← divide both sides by 5

5 + x = 5 + 4.5

5 + x = 9.5 ( subtract 5 from both sides )

x = 4.5

Then

DF = DE + EF = 5 + 4.5 = 9.5

The area of the crust that will cover the top of the pie is 50.24 square inches.

A circle is a collection of all points in a plane which are at a constant distance from a fixed point. A circle is a round-shaped figure that has no corners or edges.

For the given situation,

The baking pan is in the shape of a circle.

The diameter of a baking pan = 8 inches

So, the radius of a baking pan,r = [tex]\frac{diameter}{2}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]r=\frac{8}{2}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]r=4[/tex]

The area of the crust that will cover the top of the pie is

[tex]A=\pi r^{2}[/tex]

we know that the value of π is 3.14.

On substitute the above values,

⇒ [tex]A=(3.14)(4)^{2}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]A=(3.14)(16)[/tex]

⇒ [tex]A=50.24[/tex]

Hence we can conclude that the area of the crust that will cover the top of the pie is 50.24 square inches.

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Answer:the answer is 5  it means you mutiply five that many times

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5¹=5

5¹ means that you multiply 5 by itself 1 times

Respuesta:

0,114 m³

Explicación:

El volumen del cohete será igual a la suma de los volumenes del cilindro y del cono

Volumen del cilindro

El cilindro tiene un radio (r) de 0,25 m y una altura (h) de 0,5 m. Podemos encontrar su volumen usando la siguiente formula.

Vcil = π × r² × h

Vcil = π × (0,25 m)² × 0,5 m = 0,098 m³

Volumen del cono

El cono tiene un radio (r) de 0,25 m y una altura (h) de 0,25 m (la mitad de 0,5 m). Podemos encontrar su volumen usando la siguiente formula.

Vcono = 1/3 × π × r² × h

Vcono = 1/3 × π × (0,25 m)² × 0,25 m = 0,016 m³

Volumen del cohete

Vcohete = Vcil + Vcono = 0,098 m³ + 0,016 m³ = 0,114 m³

Answer:

7 square feet

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that area is (h*b / 2)

Therefore, we find b:

(14 * 2) / 4 = 7

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Sp of an article= Rs 2300

profit%=15%

let Cost Price of an article be X

SP=CP+PROFIT %*CP

2300=X+15/100*X

2300=100X+15X/100

2300*100=115X

230000/115=X

2000=X

Therefore cost price of an article is Rs 2000.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

for y

take 45 degree as reference angle

using cos rule

cos 45=adjacent/hypotenuse

1/[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]=10/y

y=10[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]

for x

take 45 degree as reference angle

using sin rule

sin 45=opposite/hypotenuse

1/[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]=x/10[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]

x[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]=10[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]

x=10[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]/[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]

x=10

Answer:

x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

vertical angles are equal so we can write this equation:

2x-4 = x+1

x - 4 = 1

x = 5

Answer:

1 gallon : 25.6 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

So, the way we can find the rate, or ratio between 2 units is to divide one unit by the other unit.

So basically, we see the first set of units is:

2 gallons - 51.2 miles

So basically, for every 2 gallons, there are 51.2 miles.

To find the ratio, or rate, we must find the miles per gallon.

We can do that by dividing both sides by 2:(g=gallons, m=miles)

2g/2=51.2/2m

=

g=25.6

So for every gallon, there is 25.6 miles.

We can write this as:

1 : 25.6

Hope this helps!

Answer:

25.6

Step-by-step explanation:

51.2/2=25.6

Answer:

mm + nn = -12

mm - nn = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

two equations can be derived from the question

Answer:

x₁   =   1866.2 yd   distance between ship and searchlight in C

x₂  = 2542.5 yd .  distance between ship and searchlight in B

Step-by-step explanation:

The ship (point A) and the two searchlights points  ( B  and C) shape a triangle.

We have  α  =  38°  ( opposite side x₁ or distance between ship and point C  and  β =  57 ° ( opposite side x₂ or distance between ship and point B     then γ =  180 -  ( α  +  β )

γ  =  85°

Applying sin´slaw

x₁ / sin 38   =   x₂/ sin57  =  3020 / sin 85

from sin table we find:

sin 38  =  0.6156

sin 57  =  0.8387

sin 85  =  0.9962

Then

x₁  /  0.6156  =  3020 / 0.9962

x₁  ( the opposite side to angle 38° ) /  0.6156 =  3031.5

x₁  =  3031.5*0.6156

x₁   =   1866.2 yd

x₂  =  3031.5 * 0.8387

x₂  =  2542.5 yd

Answer:

Lilly

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the literature, the length of a medium grain rice is between 5.3 and 5.9 mm. Let's take the average (5.6 mm) and convert it to meters to compare it with the estimations. We will use the conversion factor 1 m = 1000 mm.

5.6 mm × 1 m/1000 mm = 5.6 × 10⁻³ m

Jack answered 4.5 × 10⁻³ kilometers. We will convert it to meters using the conversion factor 1 km = 1000 m.

4.5 × 10⁻³ km × 1000 m/1 km = 4.5 m

Lilly answered 4.5 × 10⁻³ meters.

Diego answered 4.5 × 10⁻³ centimeters. We will convert it to meters using the conversion factor 1 m = 100 cm.

4.5 × 10⁻³ cm × 1 m/100 cm = 4.5 × 10⁻⁵ m

Willa answered 4.5 × 10⁻³ millimeters. We will convert it to meters using the conversion factor 1 m = 1000 mm.

4.5 × 10⁻³ mm × 1 m/1000 mm = 4.5 × 10⁻⁶ m

As we can see, Lilly gave the best answer (same order of magnitude).

Answer:

the answer is 1170 cubic feet

Step-by-step explanation:

all you have to do is multiply the length times the width times the height and divide it by three then you will get your answer if this helped you should mark this the brainliest!!