Mothers who are expecting their first child extremely late in life frequently suffer from MPF. Metaphase-inducing cell cycle regulatory element that can be injected into amphibian eggs
Does MPF aid in DNA condensation?Once activated, MPF causes chromosomal condensation by phosphorylating condensin, nuclear lamina dissolution by phosphorylating lamin proteins, endomembrane system organelle disintegration by phosphorylating GM130, and mitotic spindle formation by phosphorylating a number of targets.
How are MPFs governed?Cyclin B and the protein kinase Cdc2 make form the dimer known as MPF. Additional research has shown that Cdc2's phosphorylation and dephosphorylation regulate MPF and that cyclin B plays a role in these processes. Cyclin B production in mammalian cells starts during the S phase.
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Which of the following statements about a typical plasma (cell) membrane is correct?
A. Carbohydrates on the membrane surface are important in determining the overall bilayer structure.
B. The phosphoplipids of the cell membrane allow almost all molecules to move in and out of the cell.
C. The two sides of the plasma membrane have different protein compositions.
D. The cell membrane is a tough, rigid structure that primarily functions to protect and support the structure of the cell.
E. The interior of the membrane is hydrophilic because it is composed primarily of the fatty acid tails of phospholipids.
Correct option is C : The two sides of the plasma membrane have different protein compositions.
The lipid and protein content of the plasma membrane's two halves differs. The cytoplasmic and external surfaces of the membrane perform different roles, hence the surfaces' composition and structure must differ.
The cytoplasm of the cell, which includes water and other macromolecules like proteins, is visible from one side. The substance expelled from the cell creates the extracellular matrix on the opposite side. Due to the presence of various types of biomolecules, these sides of the membrane are distinct from one another. Different kinds of proteins are present in the plasma membrane. Peripheral and integral proteins are the two primary categories of proteins.
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true or false: approximately 1500 ml of fluid moves into the lumen of the small intestine each day by osmosis, attracted by osmotic particles in chyme and by secreted na , cl-, and hco3-.
Approximately 1500 ml of fluid will move into the lumen of the small intestine each day by osmosis process, attracted by osmotic particles in chyme and by secreted Na, Cl-, and HCO3-. This statement is true.
The chyme moves into the small intestine. Infiltration takes place here. The chyme is more concentrated than the epithelial cells lining the intestine. Therefore, water enters these cells through semi-permanent membranes to achieve homeostasis.
The small intestine carries water from the bloodstream into the gastrointestinal tract, helping to break down food. The small intestine also absorbs water along with other nutrients. colon. In the colon, more water moves from the digestive tract into the bloodstream.
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Whenever Ian "The Thorpedo" Thorpe swims laps, lactic acid builds up in his Olympic gold medal-winning muscles. It is then transported through his Olympic gold medal-winning blood to his Olympic gold medal-winning __________, where it is converted back into glucose. What organ completes the sentence
Liver is a organ where it is converted back into glucose.
What is thorpedo?Thorpedo takes on the warrior Aquaman. In Sydney, Ian Thorpe was the top swimmer, but that was before Michael Phelps emerged as a fresh challenge.
It's as if the United States, humiliated by Ian Thorpe and his size 17 feet at the Sydney Olympics, gave the order to create a prototype of the world's ideal swimmer. Michael Phelps is that model, and the momentous moment of his Olympic debut has arrived.
Aquaman would need to be extremely gangly and uncoordinated on dry land in order to surpass the Thorpedo. He would have to possess a remarkable level of hyperflexibility. He would have to long for it eternally.
Therefore, Liver is a organ where it is converted back into glucose.
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Answer:liver
Explanation:
if action potentials are all-or-nothing, then a) explain what is the function of graded excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials? b) explain how are postsynaptic potentials generated?
Postsynaptic potentials are spatially and temporally summed. When sodium channels open in response to a stimulus, an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) arises.
What are the purposes of graded excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials?Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP) push the potential of a neuron closer to its firing threshold. IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) shift the charge across the membrane away from the firing threshold. Postsynaptic potentials are spatially and temporally summed.
Explain how postsynaptic potentials are produced.When sodium channels open in response to a stimulus, an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) arises. Sodium rushes into the cell due to the electrochemical gradient. When sodium introduces its positive charge into the cell, the membrane potential of the cell increases, or depolarizes.
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many of the coal deposits we have today date to the carboniferous period and were formed from great forests that thrived at that time. which of the following characteristics would you be least likely to find among the plants in those forests? group of answer choices
Pollen
Late in the Paleozoic Era, from 359.2 to 299 million years ago*was the Carboniferous Period. England is where the word "Carboniferous" first appeared, in reference to the country's abundant coal resources. These coal resources can be found in eastern and southeastern North America, as well as northern Europe and Asia.
These comprised sponges, rugose corals, and trilobites, which went extinct at the end of the Permian period. There were numerous cephalopods living in the pelagic, or water column, habitat.
Earth's climate was warm at the beginning of the Carboniferous Period. Later, the equatorial regions were frequently warm and humid while glaciers formed at the poles. As the planet transitioned between glacial and interglacial periods, its climate.
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A scientists wants to clone a human gene and express the corresponding human protein in bacteria. Place the following steps in order. Use restriction enzymes to cut human dna and plasmid dna transform bacteria with ligated sample isolate desired human gene and cut plasmid isolate human dna and plasmid dna identify plasmid containing the human gene mix cut human and plasmid dna and combine using dna ligase.
The correct sequence of cloning the human gene will be:
Isolate human DNA and plasmid DNA.Isolate desired human gene and cut plasmidUse restriction enzymes to cut human DNA and plasmid DNA.Cut human and plasmid DNA and combine using DNA ligase.Transform bacteria with ligated sample.Identify plasmid containing the human gene mix.Cloning is the process of making copies of DNA in genetics in the bacterial cells. This process is exploited to make the copies of desired DNA by inserting them into the bacterial plasmid.
Plasmid is the extra-chromosomal DNA present in the bacterial cells. This is a double stranded molecule which is circular in structure. The plasmid has the ability to replicate autonomously on its own.
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A sarcomere that is at a resting length of 1. 7um will generate __________________ force compared to a sarcomere at 2. 15um.
A sarcomere that is at a resting length of 1. 7um will generate less force when compared to a sarcomere at 2. 15um.
As the actin and myosin filaments are best aligned when sarcomeres are at their resting length, this produces peak tension. As sarcomere length decreases, actin filaments are drawn along myosin filaments, which in turn draws the z-lines nearer to the myosin filaments. In the formula, 2T represents the separation between bands 1 and 2. T is the halfway point between 1 and 2.
Divide the measurement from 1 to 2 in mm by 2. Frequently, the ideal muscle length is the length at which it can produce the most active force. If the muscle length doesn't change but the muscle tension does, then the contraction is said to be isometric.
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Which of the following situations delay the development of muscle fatigue the longest?
a. Prolonged muscle contraction
b. Repetitive stimulation of a muscle
c. Consistent interruptions of muscle stimulation
d. High intensity exercise
e. Alternating sprints with up-hill jogging
The correct option is c (Consistent interruptions of muscle stimulation). Slow-twitch fibers can contract, albeit weakly, over extended periods of time. They are generally used in endurance sports like long-distance running and cycling. There are fewer capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin in fast-twitch muscle fibers.
The pulses will reach the muscles for muscular stimulation, causing them to contract. Pulses that target the neurological system prevent pain signals from traveling to the spinal cord and brain. How hard you pushed yourself will determine how long you experience muscle tiredness. Having said that, it should take you three to five days to fully recuperate. If muscle soreness persists longer than that, you may have overexerted yourself and should take that into account for any future workouts.
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Who proposed that performance on a task is affected by the amount of physiological arousal in the body?.
Richard Yerkes and John Dodson proposed that performance on a task is affected by the amount of physiological arousal in the body.
According to Richard Yerkes and John Dodson's hypothesis from 1908, physiological arousal levels in the body have an impact on how well a person does a task. We often work best when we are only mildly stimulated. Performance is typically weakened by either too much or too little arousal.
According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law, performance increases with increasing physiological or mental excitement for simple tasks. However, if the work at hand is challenging, increasing arousal will only boost performance up to a certain extent. After that, increased arousal reduces performance since the person is too nervous and anxious to focus on the task. We normally do better at moderate levels of excitement.
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A known carcinogen, _____, is produced when carbohydrate-rich foods are fried at high temperatures for extended periods of time. Examples include french fries and potato chips.
A known carcinogen, acrylamide, is produced when carbohydrate-rich foods are fried at high temperatures for extended periods of time. Examples include French fries and potato chips.
Carcinogen is any substance that can induce cancer in the body. A carcinogen can be some chemical substance or any radiation or even biological agents. The examples are cigarette smoke, X-rays, HBV, HCV, etc.
Acrylamide is the chemical agent that causes cancer. It is used to conduct a chemical reaction between sugars and asparagine, an amino acid, in plant-based foods. The formation of acrylamide is done during high temperature cooking like roasting, frying, etc.
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In a large population of plants, notches in the leaves are caused by a dominant allele n and lack of notches by a recessive allele n. Over many generations the proportion of plants in the population with notched leaves increases. What is the most likely cause?.
In a large population of plants, notches in the leaves are caused by a dominant allele n and lack of notches by a recessive allele artificial selection.
The maximum not unusual interplay between alleles is a dominant/recessive courting. An allele of a gene is stated to be dominant when it correctly overrules the opposite (recessive) allele. Eye shade and blood agencies are each examples of dominant/recessive gene relationships.
Recessive inheritance means each genes in a couple should be abnormal to purpose ailment. humans with handiest one defective gene within the pair are called carriers. these human beings are most usually now not affected with the situation. however, they can pass the atypical gene to their kids.
Dominant refers to the relationship among two variations of a gene. people acquire variations of each gene, known as alleles, from every parent. If the alleles of a gene are distinctive, one allele could be expressed; it's miles the dominant gene. The effect of the other allele, known as recessive, is masked.
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the only evolutionary process that leads to adaptive change is:
Natural selection is the only evolutionary mechanism that consistently leads to adaptive evolution.
Natural selection allows adaptation in a population by selecting only beneficial alleles.
It increases the allele frequencies of heritable traits.
The natural selection process decreases deleterious alleles by selecting against them, leading to adaptive evolution.
What is adaptive evolutionary change?
Evolutionary adaptation, or simply adaptation, is the adjustment of organisms to their environment in order to improve their chances of survival in that environment.
What is natural selection?
Natural selection is the process through which populations of living organisms adapt and change.
Thus, natural selection is the evolutionary process that leads to adaptive change.
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Kinesthesis involves:
A) the bones of the middle ear.
B) information from the muscles, tendons, and joints.
C) membranes within the cochlea.
D) the body's sense of balance.
The muscles, tendons, and joints provide information for kinesthesis.
What does "kinesthetic sense" entail?The body's position and movement can be sensed through the kinesthetic senses, which we can only become aware of through introspection. Muscle vibration is a technique used to research kinesthesia because it activates the afferents in muscle spindles, which cause sensations of movement and altered position.
What precisely are kinesthesis receptors?any of the sensory receptors that keep track of how muscles are moving and where they are. These are located in tendons, joints, and muscles. We were able to confirm using magnetoencephalography that the onset of kinesthetic sensations was connected to the activation of both the Posterior Parietal cortex and the Primary Motor cortex.
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Help asap no rocky p
Answer:
It c
Explanation:
can make me the brainliest pls
predict how the rate of cell division would differ between single-celled algae living in a sunny, nutrient-rich pond versus algae living in a shady, nutrient-poor pond. explain why. how could you test your prediction? (hint: think about what stages of the cell cycle are cells when they are actively dividing
Because the pond's nutrient levels are higher and the development circumstances are greater, the algae cells there would divide more frequently.
what is best Algal toxicity or potential benefitsBoth cyanobacteria and algae are neutral in their own right. Due to their ability to produce the oxygen required to support life, these organisms are crucial to the planet. Algae and cyanobacteria can, however, be harmful to people, animals, and the environment if they develop in large numbers or produce toxins.
In what ways are humans harmed by algae?Injurious algal blooms contain cyanobacteria that really can irritate the skin, lead to gastrointestinal problems, and occasionally create toxins that have a major negative influence on the health of people, animals, and pets. If cyanobacteria get on your skin when swimming or wading, you could be exposed to their toxic effects.
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What is the function of Kupffer cells in the liver?
Kupffer cells are the first innate immune cells and protect the liver from bacterial infections. They are phagocytic and are responsible for clearing hepatic sinus blood of bacteria and other foreign materials.
What are Kupffer cells made of?
These cells are derived from bone marrow stem cells or monocytes and are highly active in removing particulate matter and toxic or foreign substances that appear in the portal blood from the intestine.
What cell removes bacteria in the liver?
Kupffer cells rapidly capture bacteria from the blood and eliminate them, while still allowing for the induction of adaptive immunity.
Thus, kupffer cells are responsible for protecting the liver from bacterial infections.
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which of the following defense systems would be involved in eliminating virally-infected cells? which of the following defense systems would be involved in eliminating virally-infected cells? humoral immunity phagocytosis t lymphocytes complement system
The defense system involved in eliminating virally infected cells will be T lymphocytes that is option C is correct.
The defense system responsible for protecting the body from various diseases is the Immune system of the body. This system attacks the infections as well as prevent them from affecting the body of the individual. It consists of the two kinds of Lymphocytes namely B lymphocytes and T Lymphocytes. The lymphocytes are the main components protecting the body and they are generated within the bone marrow of the individual. They can work in two ways. They become either B cells and work as the main system by locating all the infections within the body or they become T cells and attack the infection as located by the B cells. The B cells are B lymphocytes and T cells are T lymphocytes.
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You discover a population of seals and find it to be at hardy–weinberg equilibrium with respect to the a locus. Suppose that there are two alleles at this locus and the frequency of one of those alleles is 0. 4. Of the individuals that carry at least one copy of that allele, what percent are homozygotes?.
Individuals that carry at least one copy of the allele, percent of homozygotes are 25%.
What is Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?The Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium is a fundamental principal of population genetics, that states : “genotype frequencies in population remain constant between generations in the absence of disturbance by outside factors".
p is frequency of S
q is frequency of s
We know p + q = 1
q is given 0.4, then
p = 1- q
= 1 - 0.4
p = 0.6 and q = 0.4
If the population of seals is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, then we can find how many heterozygotes and homozygotes are using:
p² + q² + 2pq = 1
p² = frequency SS
q² = frequency ss
p q = frequency Ss
2p*q= 2 * 0.6 * 0.4
2pq = 0.48
q² = (0.4)² = 0.16
To find the fraction of homozygotes (ss) of the individuals that carry at least one s allele, we divide the frequency of homozygotes ss by the frequency of heterozygotes Ss
= 2pq/q²
= 0.48/0.16
= 0.25 or 25%
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The dna content for an organism is analyzed. The results showed that 21% of the nucleotides contained the nitrogenous base adenine. What else can be inferred based on this data? select all that apply.
If the results show that 21% of the nucleotides contain adenine, then the cytosine fraction in vivo is 29% and the thymine fraction is also 21% (options A and C).
Define double helix model of DNA?DNA is a double helix molecule made up of two long strands of nucleotides.There are four types of nucleotides in DNA, each containing a different nitrogenous base: adenine, guanine, thymine, cytosine.Adenine always pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine, according to the base-pairing rules.As a result, the percentage of adenine equals the percentage of thymine, and the remaining percentage equals guanine + cytosine (29 + 29 = 58 >> 58 + 21 + 21 = 100). Therefore, if the results show that 21% of the nucleotides contain adenine, then the percentage of cytosine in vivo is 29% and the percentage of thymine is also 21%To know more about double helix model of DNA, visit:
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The complete question is as follows:
The DNA content for an organism is analyzed. The results showed that 21% of the nucleotides contained the nitrogenous base adenine. What else can be inferred based on this data? Select all that apply
A) The percentage of cytosine is 29%.
B) The percentage of adenine is 21% for all organisms.
C) The percentage of thymine in the organism is also 21%.
D) The percentage of guanine in the organism is also 21%.
E) The percentage for cytosine in the organism is also 21%.
Please help me with #5, I GIVE THANKS AND MARK BRAINLIEST!
Answer:
1. Isoleucine, Glycine, Leucine, Glycine, Valine, Alanine2. Glycine, Leucine, Alanine, Valine, Isoleucine, IsoleucineExplanation:If you do the example given backward, you get one of the different sequences. As you can see on the diagrams, they are listed from small to big to small to big and continued, so you just do a small, big, small, big pattern until you use all of the amino acids.You're welcome!! :)Which of the following statements does not provide evidence that differences in mice coat color could have evolved through natural selection.
(A) Evidence suggests that the mice have lived in the area for very long periods of time, so they have had enough time to evolve.
(B) Evidence from genetics indicates that the color differences between the mice can be inherited
(C) Evidence from embryology suggest that lighter mice are not related to darker mice.
(D) Evidence from the sites shows that owls provide a plausible mechanism for natural selection.
The statement in question that does not provide evidence to support that mice coat colors could have evolved through natural selection is option A.
What is natural selection?In simple terms, Natural selection is the method by which evolution takes place. It implies that over time, traits that are beneficial to the survival of an individual will be inherited from generation to generation. option B provides possible evidence of this in that it links the coat color of mice to heritage, therefore showing that it may be passed from generation to generation.
Option C also provides evidence to support this by showing that mice with varying coat colors are not related. In natural selection, if a trait is beneficial to survival, most if not all of the population will posses that trait. If coat color is linked to natural selection, mice of distinct colors would have had to evolve separately, and therefore would not be related.
Finally, option D brings about the influence of the natural predator of mice as a driving factor and catalyst of this evolution by natural selection.
Therefore, we can confirm that of the options listed, the one that does not provide any form of evidence to promote the theory that natural selection is how mice coat colors have evolved is option A.
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which of the following best explains how environmental stressors, such as wildfires, can affect biodiversity in an ecosystem? responses after an environmental stress, a genetic bottleneck may occur, which will increase genetic diversity. after an environmental stress, a genetic bottleneck may occur, which will increase genetic diversity. habitat diversity will increase the available niches if the landscape becomes more uniform after a disturbance. habitat diversity will increase the available niches if the landscape becomes more uniform after a disturbance. ecosystems with more species diversity are more likely to recover after a disturbance than ecosystems with low species diversity. ecosystems with more species diversity are more likely to recover after a disturbance than ecosystems with low species diversity. smaller populations are less likely to go extinct than larger populations, so the species diversity will remain constant.
The best explanation of the effect of environmental stressors upon biodiversity in an ecosystem is: ecosystems with more species diversity are more likely to recover after a disturbance than ecosystems with low species diversity.
Biodiversity is defined as the presence of the varying species of plants and animals in an area. More are the number of species in an area, richer is the biodiversity of that area considered.
Ecosystem is composed of all the living components and non-living objects present in an area depending upon each other. The ecosystem also takes into consideration the climate and the landscapes of the region.
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an autoradiogram was generated by the dideoxy sequencing method. reading from bottom to top gives you the sequence of the synthesized strand in the 5 to 3 direction. it is 'tgaacggt'. what would the sequence of template strand be from the 5 to the 3 end?
The template strand is complementary and runs in the opposite direction because the synth strand is 5' - TGAACGGT - 3'. ACTTGCCA - 3' - 5'
In the fundamental dideoxy sequencing reaction, an oligonucleotide primer is annealed to a single-stranded DNA template and expanded by DNA polymerase. Four deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs), one of which is 35S-labeled, are present while this is being done. Additionally, one of the four ddNTPs, which block elongation when incorporated into the lengthening DNA strand, is present in the reaction. Following the sequencing operations, the results are electrophoresed on a high-resolution denaturing polyacrylamide gel, and the DNA sequence is then visible via autoradiography.
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in pea plants, the gene for round seed (r) is dominant and wrinkled seeds (r) are recessive. the endosperm of the pea is also either starchy, a dominant gene (s) or waxy (s). what can be said of a fully heterozygous dihybrid cross?
In a dihybrid cross, all of these options are potential combinations.
What genotype does a pea plant have if the round seeds are heterozygous recessive and the green seeds are homozygous recessive?RrYy is the genotype of a plant pea with heterozygous round seeds and homozygous recessive green seeds. A dihybrid cross's starting genotype would be RrYy and RrYy.
The pea wrinkled seed allele is a recessive allele, so why?Garden peas' gene for wrinkled seed shape is regarded as recessive because heterozygotes do not express the characteristic it is linked to. Heterozygotes are people with two distinct alleles at the same gene locus.
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In 3-5 sentences, describe the advantages and disadvantages of using these two different images to model Mitosis.
The advantage of the first model is it used less space for showing stages of mitosis whereas the disadvantage of using this model in Mitosis is that it does not provide detailed information.
What is mitosis cell division?Mitosis is a process of cell division in cells that occurs when a parent cell divides to form two identical daughter cells. During this cell division, diploid daughter cells are produced from a single parent cell while on the other hand, meiosis is a process of cell division in cells that happens when a parent cell divides to form four identical daughter cells. Meiosis refers to the formation of four cells from a single parent having haploid chromosomes. The advantage of the first model is that it provides stages of mitosis by using less space whereas the disadvantage of using this model Mitosis is that it does not provide detailed information. The advantage of the second model is that it does not provide detailed information whereas the disadvantage of using this model of Mitosis is that it provides stages of mitosis by using less space.
So we can conclude that the advantage of the first model is the disadvantage of the second model and vice versa.
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Answer:
The disadvantages for both cells are that neither is an accurate representation of the cell themselves, or the processes. The first cell doesn't tell us exactly what phases the cell is currently going through, and the cell doesn't go through is phases through grey arrows either. However, it does tell us what the phases look like, and the process of how the cell goes through them. The disadvantages of the second map is that, it doesn't show what the phases look like, the advantages are that tells us what the phases are and what comes before and after them, while showing how this occurs in a cycle and keeps going until senescense.
Explanation: Please give me Brainliest! Thank you!
following an oil spill in the gulf of mexico, a population of fish evolves increased tolerance to oil over a period of several generations. which statement is most likely to be true? all individuals in the initial population must have had the same degree of tolerance to oil. this should be considered a case of evolution by artificial selection because the response came rapidly. this should be considered a case of natural selection because humans were not selecting for particular desirable traits. this should be considered a case of evolution by artificial selection because it came about due to human activity. all individuals in the current population must have the same degree of tolerance to oil.
This should be considered a case of natural selection because humans were not selecting for particular desirable traits.
What is natural selection ?Populations of living things adapt and change through a process called natural selection. People in a population are naturally variable, which means that each individual is unique in some ways. This variation indicates that some people have characteristics that are more environment-suited than others.
Giraffes, for instance, have a competitive advantage because of their long necks, which have evolved to allow them to feed on leaves that other animals cannot reach. Those with longer necks were able to survive and reproduce, passing on the trait to the next generation as a result of a better food source.Learn more about Natural selection here:
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There is growing concern over the decline in the U.S. honeybee population due to the use of pesticides. How could this affect biodiversity and ecosystem services? Suggest a solution for this problem.
any time dna is damaged, a mutation will result
what is systolic pressure? multiple choice the maximum pressure achieved during ventricular contraction the bottom number in a blood pressure reading the maximum pressure achieved during ventricular relaxation the average pressure in the arteries during a heart beat
Systolic pressure is the maximum pressure achieved during ventricular contraction
Systolic pressure The top number, systolic blood pressure, measures the force the heart exerts on the artery walls with each beat. The bottom number, diastolic pressure, measures the force the heart exerts on the artery walls during the beat. Blood pressure readings are indicated by two numbers. The top number is the maximum pressure your heart exerts when it beats (systolic pressure). The bottom number is the arterial pressure between beats (diastolic pressure). In adults, systolic blood pressure less than 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure less than 90 mmHg are considered normal.
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What amino acid chain results from this DNA code?
mRNA:
TAC GCA CCA TGC AAT CGC