PLEASE HELP DUE IN 15 MINUTES

Answer:

combination

Step-by-step explanation:

solution :

6C2 + 15C7

=6,450

Answer:

0.281 = 28.1% probability a given player averaged less than 190.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

A bowling leagues mean score is 197 with a standard deviation of 12.

This means that [tex]\mu = 197, \sigma = 12[/tex]

What is the probability a given player averaged less than 190?

This is the p-value of Z when X = 190.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{190 - 197}{12}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.58[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.58[/tex] has a p-value of 0.281.

0.281 = 28.1% probability a given player averaged less than 190.

Answer:

118.8 cubic inches

Step-by-step explanation:

volume of a cone is

[tex]vol \: = \frac{1}{3} \times \pi \times \frac{ {d}^{2} }{4} \times h[/tex]

where d is base diameter and

h is cone height.

hence

[tex]vol \: = \frac{1}{3} \times \pi \times \frac{ {5.5}^{2} }{4} \times 15 \\ = \pi \times \frac{30.25}{4} \times 5 \\ = 118.8 \: cu \: in[/tex]

The volume of the cone-shaped mold is 118.73 in³

Volume is the measure of the capacity that an object holds. For example, if a cup can hold 100 ml of water up to the brim, its volume is said to be 100 ml.

Given that a cone shaped mold is filled with the cake batter, the height of the mold is 15 inches, and the base diameter is 5.5,

We need to find the volume of the mold,

Volume of the cone = π × radius² × height / 3

= 3.14 × 2.75² × 15 / 3

= 118.73

Hence, the volume of the cone-shaped mold is 118.73 in³

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Answer:

46305

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

yh its true

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  True

Step-by-step explanation:

No x-value is repeated, so the table represents a functional relation.

  [tex]\boxed{\textsf{True}}[/tex]

Answer:

check the picture

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope you get it

Answer:

x ≤ -½

Step-by-step explanation:

symetry axis => x = (-4+3)/2

x = -1/2

so, the function decreasing over interval x≤ -½

The function is decreasing over the interval (3, ∞).

To determine if the function is decreasing or increasing between these critical points, we can test a point within each interval. Let's pick a test point in each interval and evaluate the function at these points.

Interval I: (-∞, -4)

Let's choose x = -5 as a test point in this interval.

Calculate f(-5) to determine the function's behavior at this point.

Interval II: (-4, 3)

Let's choose x = 0 as a test point in this interval.

Calculate f(0) to determine the function's behavior at this point.

Interval III: (3, ∞)

Let's choose x = 4 as a test point in this interval.

Calculate f(4) to determine the function's behavior at this point.

If the function values decrease as we move from left to right in an interval, then the function is decreasing over that interval.

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The answer is attached. I hope this helps answer your question!

Hope this help!!!

Have a nice day!!!

Answer:

a. 0.349

b. 0.651

c. 0.93

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the Question,

Thus, p=0.10 , n=10 &  [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}n\\x\\\end{array}\right] = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]  

Now, Use Binomial distribution = [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}n\\x\\\end{array}\right]*(p)^{x} *{(1-p)}^{n-x}[/tex]

a. p(x=0) ⇒  [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}10\\0\\\end{array}\right]*(0.1)^{0} *{(0.9)}^{10}[/tex] = 0.349  

Thus, The Probability that No one has done a one-time fling = 0.349

b. p(x≥1) = 1 - p(x=0)   ⇒   1 - 0.349 = 0.651

Thus, The Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling = 0.651

c. p(x≤2) = p(x=0) + p(x=1) + p(x=2)

p(x≤2) = [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}10\\0\\\end{array}\right]*(0.1)^{0} *{(0.9)}^{10}[/tex] + [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}10\\1\\\end{array}\right]*(0.1)^{1} *{(0.9)}^{9}[/tex] + [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}10\\2\\\end{array}\right]*(0.1)^{2} *{(0.9)}^{8}[/tex]

on Solving, we get

p(x≤2) = 0.349 + 0.347 + 0.194

p(x≤2) = 0.93

Thus, The Probability that No More Than two person have done a one-time fling = 0.93

Answer:

6 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

460 ÷ 6 = 76.666666.

512 ÷ 76.666666 = 6.672

6.672 rounded to a whole number is 6.

Note:

Pls notify me if my answer is incorrect for the other users that will see this message.

-kiniwih426

Step-by-step explanation:

X/2 - 5 = 20

Add 5 to both sides

X/2 = 25

Multiply both sides by 2

X = 50

The answer is x = 50

Answer:

x/2-5=20

1/2x-5=20

Multiple both sides by 2

x-10=40

x=40+10

Add the numbers

x=50

-------------------

Hope it helps

Have a great day!!

Answer:

1 to 10 = Pointer Finger

1 to 100 = Ring Finger

1 to 1000 = Ring Finger

Step-by-step explanation:

Every time she counts 10 on her fingers starting from 1 it either lands on her Index Finger or Ring Finger in a pattern of starting first on her index finger for 10 then ending up on her Ring Finger for 20 and 30 the going back to her Index finger for 40 and 50 and so on. Using this you can figure out 100 and 1000.

If the girl counts from 1 to 100, then finger stops at ring finger.

In mathematics, a pattern is a recurrent arrangement of numbers, forms, colours, and other elements. Any event or object can be related to the Pattern. An arrangement of numbers is referred to as a pattern when it is done in a certain way. Sometimes a pattern is referred to as a series.

Given that, a little girl starts by calling her thumb 1, the pointer finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, and pinky finger 5.

One complete round is 8 count.

1) The girl counts from 1 to 10

So, 10/8 here, 2 is remainder.

2 means she stops at pointer finger

2) The girl counts from 1 to 100

Here, 100/8

Thus, quotient = 12 and remainder = 4

So, 4 means she stops at ring finger

2) The girl counts from 1 to 1000

Here, 1000/8

Thus, quotient = 125 and remainder = 0

So, 0 means she stops at thumb

Therefore, if the girl counts from 1 to 100, then finger stops at ring finger.

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Answer:

y = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

_____________________

Answer:

B and C

Step-by-step explanation:

Required

Select graphs that are dilated by a scale factor greater than 1

For graph A:

Graph A is smaller than the original graph. This indicates dilation with a scale factor less than 1

For graph B:

Graph B is bigger than the original graph and is dilated over (0,0). This indicates dilation with a scale factor greater than 1

For graph C:

Graph C is bigger than the original graph; however, it is not dilated over (0,0). This indicates dilation with a scale factor greater than 1

For graph D:

Graph D is bigger than the original graph; however, it is not only dilated but also flipped over (i.e. rotated).

Hence, b and c is true

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given information:

The Directrix  x = - 1

The eccentricity  e = 1

Since the Directrix x = - 1, it implies that the directrix appears on the left negative side of the pole and is vertical.

Hence, the conic equation in terms of r is:

[tex]\mathsf{r =\dfrac{ep}{1-e \ cos \ \theta}}[/tex]

From the directrix to the pole, the distance p = 1

So;

[tex]\mathsf{r =\dfrac{1*1}{1-1 \ cos \ \theta}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{r =\dfrac{1}{1- \ cos \ \theta}}[/tex]

Answer:

odd

Step-by-step explanation:

odd

Let’s say the first class is X.

Avg(X)= x/20=15

X=300

Let’s say the second class is Y.

Avg(Y)= Y/30=20

Y=600

X+Y=900

AVG(X+Y)=900/(20+30)=900/50=18

The average of both classes is 18.

Step-by-step explanation:

the surface area is my head times my leg which is basically my eyes

Answer:

i think its 60%

Step-by-step explanation:

if its wrong im rlly sorry

mark me as brainliest if its right pls

Answer:

MBI, MBV, ABV, ABI, MPI, MPV, APV, API

Answer:

[tex]d=\sqrt{53}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the distance between two points i.e. (−5,−1) and (−3,−8).

It can be calculated using distance formula as follows :

[tex]d=\sqrt{(y_2-y_1)^2+(x_2-x_1)^2}[/tex]

We have, x₁ = -5, x₂ = -3, y₁ = -1 and y₂ = -8

Put all the values,

[tex]d=\sqrt{(-8-(-1))^2+(-3-(-5))^2}\\\\d=\sqrt{49+4}\\\\d=\sqrt{53}[/tex]

So, the distance between the points is equal to [tex]\sqrt{53}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Graph a right triangle with the two points forming the hypotenuse. Using the sides, find the distance between the two points in simplest radical form(-3,5) and (-5,-2)

Answer:

3      2

6      2

Step-by-step explanation:

a/(a + b) = 0.6

b/(a + b) = 0.25

c/(c + d) = 0.3333 = 1/3

d/(a + d) = 0.5

Answer:

3 2

6 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The equation of line 5 x + 3 y = 10.

Step-by-step explanation:

Two points (- 4, 10 ) and (- 1, 5)

The equation of line passing through the two points is given by

[tex](y -y_{1})=\frac {y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\times (x- x_{1})\\\\(y - 10)=\frac {5 - 10 }{- 1+ 4}\times (x +4)\\\\y -10 = \frac{-5}{3}\times (x +4)\\\\3 y - 30 =- 5 x - 20\\\\5 x + 3 y = 10[/tex]

Answer:

y = -5/3x + 10/3

3y = -5x + 10

5x + 3y = 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Got it right on Edge

Answer:

[0, ∞)

0≤y<∞

Step-by-step explanation:

The range is the possible values that y can take

y  goes from 0 to positive infinity

[0, ∞)

0≤y<∞

Answer:

[tex]y\geq 0\\[/tex]

y ∈ [0, ∞)

Step-by-step explanation:

The range of a function is the set of all possible output values. In this case, one can see that the graph never goes below the value (0), therefore the range is y will always be greater than or equal to (0).