Daryl ties a rope to a brick and lifts the brick straight up. The free-body
diagram below shows the brick when it is suspended above the ground.
Force 1
Force 2
What is force 1 in this diagram?
O A. Friction
OB. Tension
O C. Normal force
O D. Weight

Answer:

  Λ = 5.14 10⁻⁴ m

Explanation:

This is a double slit experiment, which for the case of constructive interference

          d sin θ = m λ

let's use trigonometry

         tan θ = y / L

as the angles are very small

         tan θ = [tex]\frac{sin \theta}{cos \theta}[/tex] = sin θ

         sin θ = y / L

we substitute

         d y / L = m λ

        y = m λ L / d

we calculate for the interference of order m = 5

         y = 5  527 10⁻⁹  1.54/0.102 10⁻³

         y = 3.978 10⁻² m

Now we can find the difference in length between the two rays, that of the central maximum and this

let's use the Pythagorean theorem

           L’= [tex]\sqrt{L^2 +y^2}[/tex]

           L ’= [tex]\sqrt{1.54^2 +(3.978 \ 10^{-2})^2 }[/tex]

           L ’= 1.54051 m

optical path difference

          Λ = L’- L

          Λ = 1.54051 - 1.54

          Λ = 5.14 10⁻⁴ m

Answer:

1.48×10⁻⁷ Newtons

Explanation:

From the question,

According to newton's law of universal gravitation.

F = Gmm'/r²........................ Equation 1

F = gravitational force, G = gravitational constant, m = mass of the first ball, m' = mass of the second ball, r = distance between the balls.

Given: m = m' = 8 kg, r = 17 cm = 0.17 m,

Constant : G = 6.67×10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg²

Substitute these values into equation 1

F =  (6.67×10⁻¹¹×8×8)/(0.17²)

F = 1.48×10⁻⁷ N

Answer:true

Explanation:because the double lights

Answer:

I think the answer is B, keeps Earth in a spherical shape

Answer:

The basic answer is sea flows. On the off chance that the air making a trip to New York moves via land, it will be cooler than the air and flows that reach, for instance, San Francisco. Along these lines, Rome is hotter than New York because of flows, topography and air development designs.

Explanation:

Brainliest?

Answer:

The correct answer is -  91.4 nm

Explanation:

According to Bohr's model, the minimum wavelength to ionize Hydrogen atom from n= 1 state is expressed as:

(h×c)/λ=13.6eV

here,

h - Planck constant

c - the speed of light

λ - wavelength

Placing the value in the formula for the wavelength

(6.626×10^−34J.s × 3×10^8 m/s)/λ  =  13.6 ×1.6 × 10^−19 J

λ≈91.4nm

Thus, the correct answer would be = 91.4 nm

When light encounters transparent materials, almost all of it passes directly through them. Glass, for example, is transparent to all visible light. ... Most of the light is either reflected by the object or absorbed and converted to thermal energy. Materials such as wood, stone, and metals are opaque to visible light.

Answer:

slender-bodied non-stinging insect having iridescent wings that are outspread at rest; adults and nymphs feed on mosquitoes etc.

Explanation:

I hope this works. I have a snake and it helps to know this stuff

Answer:

 F = m a,  a = 0.3 m / s²

this acceleration points in the direction of the unbalanced force

Explanation:

In this problem we must use Newton's second law. Let's fix a reference system with the x axis parallel to the surface and the y axis perpendicular

Y axis y

         N-W = 0

         N = W = mg

X axis

        ∑ F = m a

        F = m a

we substitute

        150 = m a

To find an acceleration value, the mass of the car must be known, if the mass is m = 500 kg

        a = 150/500

        a = 0.3 m / s²

this acceleration points in the direction of the unbalanced force

Answer:

v = 2.91 m/s

Explanation:

Given that,

A kayaker is paddling south at 2.50 m/s, and encounters a weird current moving 1.15 m/s west.

We need to find the resultant velocity. Both velocities are perpendicular to each other. So,

[tex]v=\sqrt{v_1^2+v_2^2} \\\\=\sqrt{2.5^2+1.5^2} \\\\=2.91\ m/s[/tex]

So, the magnitude of the resultant velocity is equal to 2.91 m/s.

Answer: 0.05 J

Explanation:

List all variables before solving:

K = 40 N/m

x = 5 cm (convert to 0.05 m)

Use the equation for potential energy (PE):

PE = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] k[tex]x^{2}[/tex]

Plug in the given variables and solve:

PE = ( [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ) (40 N/m) (0.05 m)^2

The answer is 0.05 J

Answer:

[tex]65.6\ \text{J/m}^3[/tex]

[tex]0.11\ \text{J}[/tex]

Explanation:

B = Magnetic field = [tex]\mu_0 \dfrac{N}{l}I[/tex]

[tex]\mu_0[/tex] = Vacuum permeability = [tex]4\pi10^{-7}\ \text{H/m}[/tex]

N = Number of turns = 1270

[tex]l[/tex] = Length of solenoid = 93.9 cm = 0.939 m

[tex]I[/tex] = Current = 7.8 A

A = Area of solenoid = [tex]17.3\ \text{cm}^2[/tex]

Energy density of a solenoid is given by

[tex]u_m=\dfrac{B^2}{2\mu_0}\\\Rightarrow u_m=\dfrac{(\mu_0 \dfrac{N}{l}I)^2}{2\mu_0}\\\Rightarrow u_m=\dfrac{\mu_0N^2I^2}{2l^2}\\\Rightarrow u_m=\dfrac{4\pi\times 10^{-7}\times 1230^2\times 7.8^2}{2\times 0.939^2}\\\Rightarrow u_m=65.6\ \text{J/m}^3[/tex]

The energy density of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is [tex]65.6\ \text{J/m}^3[/tex]

Energy is given by

[tex]U_m=u_mAl\\\Rightarrow U_m=65.6\times 17.3\times 10^{-4}\times 0.939\\\Rightarrow U_m=0.11\ \text{J}[/tex]

The total energy in joules stored in the magnetic field is [tex]0.11\ \text{J}[/tex].

Answer:

Get to work.

Explanation:

This is not Brainly material. This is a project that you need to get started on and do your best on. It always looks worst before you get started on it. Just sink your teeth in and you'll be finishing it up before you know it.

Answer:

careers related to the promotion or treatment of reproductive health and choose one career to focus on. You are going to identify the key factors of the educational path that you would need to take to work in this career, the annual salary that you would earn, the schedule that you may find yourself working, physical requirements for the job, and how long it will take you to achieve this goal.

Explanation:

Answer:

less than one lightyear=d

Explanation:

I took the test.:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D:D::):):):):):):):):):):):):):):):):):):):):):)

Answer:

C: will brake and quickly come to rest.

Explanation:

Correct answer is option C because for the swinging motion of the copper plates between the magnetic field which is set up as a result of it being between the two magnetic poles, there will be a continuous change of magnetic field flux that will be linked with the swinging pendulum.

As a result of this continuous change of magnetic field flux, it makes eddy currents to be set up in the copper plate which according to the Lenz's laws of electromagnetic induction tries to oppose the motion of the swinging pendulum and finally will make it come to rest.

Answer:

the distance is 6.46 cm.

Explanation:

Given

current in the wire, I = 4.2 A

magnitude of the magnetic field, B = 1.3 x 10⁻⁵ T

The distance from the wire is determined by using Biot-Savart Law;

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_o I}{2\pi r} \\\\r = \frac{\mu_o I}{2\pi B}[/tex]

Where;

r is the distance from the wire where the magnetic field is experienced

[tex]r = \frac{\mu_o I}{2\pi B}\\\\r = \frac{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 4.2 }{2\pi \times 1.3 \times 10^{-5}}\\\\r = 0.0646 \ m\\\\r = 6.46 \ cm[/tex]

Therefore, the distance is 6.46 cm.

Answer:

too many

Explanation:

Answer:

-2.2cm

Explanation:

A dentist uses a concave mirror to examine a tooth that is 1.00 cm in front of the mirror. The image of the tooth forms 10.0 cm behind the mirror. What is the mirror's radius of curvature 0.909 m.

To determine the mirror's radius of curvature, we can use the mirror formula:

1/f = 1/v - 1/u

Where:

f is the focal length of the mirror

v is the image distance (distance of the image from the mirror)

u is the object distance (distance of the object from the mirror)

In this case, the object distance (u) is 1.00 cm and the image distance (v) is -10.0 cm (since the image is formed behind the mirror, the distance is negative).

1/f = 1/(-10.0) - 1/(1.00)

Simplifying the equation:

1/f = -0.1 - 1

1/f = -1.1

Now, we can find the reciprocal of both sides of the equation:

f/1 = -1/1.1

f ≈ -0.909 m

The negative sign indicates that the mirror is concave.

Therefore, the mirror's radius of curvature is approximately 0.909 m.

To know more about Mirror :

https://brainly.com/question/116014

#SPJ2.

Answer:

 x = 25 / μ     [ ft]

Explanation:

To solve this exercise we can use Newton's second law.

Let's set a reference system where the x axis is parallel to the road

Y axis  

       N_B + N_A - W_van - W_load = 0

       N_B + N_A = W_van + W_load

X axis

     fr = ma

     a = fr / m

the total mass is

        m = (W_van + W_load) / g

the friction force has the expression

      fr = μ N_{total}

      fr = μy (W_van + W_load)

we substitute

      a = μ (W_van + W_load)    [tex]\frac{g}{W_van + W_load}[/tex]

      a = μ g

taking the acceleration let's use the kinematic relations where the final velocity is zero

       v² = v₀² - 2 a x

       0 = v₀² -2a x

        x = [tex]\frac{v_o^2}{2a}[/tex]

        x = [tex]\frac{v_o^2}{2 \mu g}[/tex]

        x = [tex]\frac{40^2}{2 \ 32 \ \mu}[/tex]

        x = 25 / μ     [ ft]

Explanation:

Newton's second law of motion states that the external force is directly proportional to the rate of change of momentum. Mathematically, Newton's second law of motion is given by :

F = ma

Where

m is the mass and a is the acceleration

If there is a smaller mass, it would need a weaker force to accelerate it as the force is directly proportional to the mass. Hence, the correct option is (d).

Answer:

[tex]36.44\ \text{kg m/s}\hat{i}[/tex]

Explanation:

I = Moment of inertia of sphere = [tex]\dfrac{2}{5}MR^2[/tex]

M = Mass of sphere = 29 kg

R = Radius of sphere = 0.5 m

T = Time taken for one revolution = 0.5 s

[tex]\omega[/tex] = Angular velocity = [tex]\dfrac{2\pi}{T}[/tex]

[tex]L=I\omega\\\Rightarrow L=\dfrac{2}{5}MR^2\dfrac{2\pi}{T}\\\Rightarrow L=\dfrac{4MR^2\pi}{5T}\\\Rightarrow L=\dfrac{4\times 29\times 0.5^2\pi}{5\times 0.5}\\\Rightarrow L=36.44\ \text{kg m/s}[/tex]

The rotational angular momentum of the sphere is [tex]36.44\ \text{kg m/s}\hat{i}[/tex].

Answer:

We apply an electric field in the negative y direction

Explanation:

Since A uniform magnetic field is in the positive z direction and A positively charged particle is moving in the positive x direction through the field, the magnetic force acting on the positively charged particle is in the positive y direction according to Fleming's right-hand rule.

For the net force on the particle to be zero, we apply an electric field in the negative y direction to create an electric force on the positively charged particle, so as to cancel out the magnetic force.

Answer:

the frequency of the second harmonic of the pipe is 425 Hz

Explanation:

Given;

length of the open pipe, L = 0.8 m

velocity of sound, v = 340 m/s

The wavelength of the second harmonic is calculated as follows;

L = A ---> N   +  N--->N   +   N--->A

where;

L is the length of the pipe in the second harmonic

A represents antinode of the wave

N represents the node of the wave

[tex]L = \frac{\lambda}{4} + \frac{\lambda}{2} + \frac{\lambda}{4} \\\\L = \lambda[/tex]

The frequency is calculated as follows;

[tex]F_1 = \frac{V}{\lambda} = \frac{340}{0.8} = 425 \ Hz[/tex]

Therefore, the frequency of the second harmonic of the pipe is 425 Hz.

The frequency of the second harmonic of the pipe is 425 Hz.

Frequency is the number of oscillations per second in the sinusoidal wave.

Given is length of the open pipe, L = 0.8 m, and velocity of sound, v = 340 m/s

The wavelength of the second harmonic is represented as

L = A → N   +  N→N   +   N→A

where, L is the length of the pipe in the second harmonic, A represents antinode of the wave, N represents the node of the wave

Length = λ/4 +λ/2 +λ/4

Length = λ

The frequency is calculated

frequency = speed of light / wavelength

Put the values, we get

f = 340/0.80

f = 425 Hz

Therefore, the frequency of the second harmonic of the pipe is 425 Hz.

Learn more about frequency.

https://brainly.com/question/25867078

#SPJ5

Answer:

Earth Day is observed globally

Explanation:

Answer:

not enought info

Explanation:

tbh I just know it's not 5 10 or 1

Answer:

B. 5 A

Explanation:

10/2= 5

Educere

Answer:

0.01 Ω

Explanation:

Given that the output voltage varies by 5 mV when loaded from 0.01 A to 1 A

Therefore, the regulators output resistance is given by :

[tex]$I_L=\frac{V_L}{R_L}$[/tex]

[tex]$(1.00 - 0.01)A= \frac{5 \ mV}{R_L}$[/tex]

[tex]$0.99 \ A= \frac{5 \ mV}{R_L}$[/tex]

∴ The line and load regulation is 0.01 Ω