For f(x)=3x+1 and g(x)=x^2-6, find (fxg)(x).

3x^2-17

4x^2-6x-8

3x^3+x^2-18x-6

3x^3+x^2-6x-6

Answer:

<NMP and <QPR

Step-by-step explanation:

Look up corresponding angle examples. these angles are corresponding.

Answer:

the answer is 37.5cm^2

Answer:

3hours and 15 mins

Step-by-step explanation:

210 divied by 3=70

70=per hour

4 hours=280

70 divied by 2= 35

.5=35

280+35=315

315 miles in 4.5 hours

30=8+4(z-2)

Distribute 4 through the parentheses

30=8+4z-8

Eliminate the opposites

30=4z

Swap the sides of the equation

4z=30

Divide both sides of the equation by 4

4z÷4=30÷4

Any expression divided by itself equals 1

z=30÷4

or write the division as a fraction

z=30/4

copy the numerator and denominator of the fraction

30=2x3x5

4=2x2

Write the prime factorization of 30

Write the prime factorization of 4

30=2          x3x5

4=2x2

    2

Line up the common factors in both lists

Copy the common factors

Since there is only one common factor, the common factor 2 is also the greatest common factor

30÷2/4÷2

  2

Divide 30 and 4 by the greatest common factor 2

15/4÷2

Divide the numbers in the numerator

15/2

Divide the numbers in the denominator

15/2

The simplified expression is 15/2

That's it. hope it wasn't too hard to understand?

Answer:

J. $950

Step-by-step explanation:

p(n)= 10n-50

p(n)=10(100)-50

P(n)=1000-50

950

Answer:

It depends on how many teacher has

Step-by-step explanation:

52 children divided by number of teacher

[tex] {x}^{2} - 5x + 6 = 0[/tex]

[tex](x - 3)(x - 2) = 0[/tex]

[tex]x - 3 = 0 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: x - 2 = 0[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: x = 0 + 3 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: x = 0 + 2[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: x = 3 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: x = 2[/tex]

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Answer:

y = 6 + x

Step-by-step explanation:

Membership fee = $6

Fee per visit = $1

Let

x = number of visits

y = Total cost

Total cost = fixed cost + variable cost

Fixed cost = Membership fee = $6

Variable cost = Fee per visit × number of visits

= $1 * x

= $x

Total cost = fixed cost + variable cost

y = $6 + $x

y = 6 + x

Answer:

258

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

258

Step-by-step explanation:

Follow the order of PEMDAS

Answer:

Let x be that number.

[tex] - 8 \div (x + 3)[/tex]

The quotient is the result of dividing a number by another. In this case, the numbers are - 8 and x + 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

Kindly find attached a screenshot of the price list of some cars from motor 1 .com since you did not provide any in the question, and let us assume it is the same as what is available at a dealership near you.

From the list, since you don't have enough money in your account to buy a car, I will say you should get a 2017 Nissan Versa for $11,990

and 25% of  $11,990 is

(25/100)* 11,990

0.25* 11,990

$2997.5

So you can make a down payment of $2997.5

and pay the remainder of $8992.5 later

Answer:

3b+b and 2(2b)

Step-by-step explanation:

BRAINLIEST APPRECIATED!

THANKS!

Answer:

A Clydesdale drinks 840 gallons of water in 28 days.

Step-by-step explanation:

120 gallons/4 days is 30 gallons every day. 30 gallons multiplied by 28 days is 840.

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle v=46.07\ Km/h[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Speed

The speed is the ratio between the distance x traveled by an object and the time t taken.

[tex]\displaystyle v=\frac{x}{t}[/tex]

The car travels x=43 Km in t=56 minutes. We are required to express the speed in Km/h. The time needs to be expressed in hours:

[tex]t = 56 / 60 = 0.933\ h[/tex]

Now apply the formula:

[tex]\boxed{\displaystyle v=\frac{43}{0.933}=46.07\ Km/h}[/tex]

Answer:

n=12.5

Step-by-step explanation:

10/8=n/10

multiply the denominator and numerators 10 ad 10=100 divide by 8=12.5

Answer: No.

Step-by-step explanation: It's obviously a quiz of some sort. If it's not, then why would it be timed? Please don't do this :(

Answer:

2x - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

2x−1+2−2

=2x+−1+2+−2

Combine Like Terms:

=2x+−1+2+−2

=(2x)+(−1+2+−2)

=2x+−1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to add -1 to each side of this to get rid of the -1 in the equation.

2x - 1 + 2 = 2

2x + 1 = 2

We need to subtract 1 from each side.

2x = 1

x = 0.5

Checking:

2(0.5) - 1 + 2 = 2

1 - 1 = 0 + 2 = 2 (Checks out)

Answer:

A, B, C, D or simplify all of them

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

all 4 of them

Step-by-step explanation:

a. 29x + 92 = 29x - 11

   0x + 92 = -11

   0x ≠ -103

b. 29x + 11 =  29x - 11

   0x + 11 = -11

   0x = -22

   0 ≠ -22

c. 29x - 29 = 29x - 11

   0x = 18

   0 ≠ 18

d. 29x + 29 = 29x - 11

  0x + 29 = -11

  0x = -40

  0 ≠ 40

Answer:

400 square meters

Step-by-step explanation:

We can first solve this problem with each unit representing 1 centimeter, and then scale up at the very end. The shape that we have a parallelogram. The base is 8 cm, and the height is 2 cm. The formula for the area of a parallelogram is just [tex]bh[/tex], so the area of the parallelogram is 16 square centimeters. However, now we scale up. Since each centimeter correlates to 5 meters, each little box will correlate to 25 square meters. Therefore, [tex]16 \cdot 25 = \boxed{400}[/tex] square meters is our answer

Answer:

18

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

(45+(15))/3=20

Answer:

24 ft of cord

Step-by-step explanation:

8ft = 3 chains

16 ft = 6 chains

24 ft = 12 chains

OR

8 x 3 =24

Answer:

[tex]cos^2\theta + sin^2\theta = 1[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex](\frac{b}{r})^2 + (\frac{a}{r})^2[/tex]

Required

Use the expression to prove a trigonometry identity

The given expression is not complete until it is written as:

[tex](\frac{b}{r})^2 + (\frac{a}{r})^2 = (\frac{r}{r})^2[/tex]

Going by the Pythagoras theorem, we can assume the following.

So, we have:

[tex]Sin\theta = \frac{a}{r}[/tex]

[tex]Cos\theta = \frac{b}{r}[/tex]

Having said that:

The expression can be further simplified as:

[tex](\frac{b}{r})^2 + (\frac{a}{r})^2 = 1[/tex]

Substitute values for sin and cos

[tex](\frac{b}{r})^2 + (\frac{a}{r})^2 = 1[/tex] becomes

[tex]cos^2\theta + sin^2\theta = 1[/tex]

Answer:

yes it is because it is expressed in the form of a p/q

Step-by-step explanation:

If a number is expressed in the form of p/q then it is a rational number. Here p and q are integers, and q is not equal to 0. A rational number should have a numerator and denominator. Examples: 10/2, 30/3, 100/5.

so yes 10/2 is a rational number

oh and i mean yes its rational no its not irrational :)

No, it is not an irrational number.

Irrational numbers are those who cannot be turned into a fraction.

10/2 is a fraction. Therefore, it is a Rational number.

[tex]Edit:\;Also,\;if\;you\;were\;to\;make\;it\;a\;whole\;number\;then\;it\;would\;be\:5.[/tex] [tex]Which\;can\:be\;turned\;into\;5/1.[/tex]

To do so, divide the numerator (Top number) by the denominator (Bottom number).  

Answer:

2 and 1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Reduce fractions where possible.

Then your initial equation becomes 1/8 divied by 1/17.Applying the fractions formula for division, 1 17 over 8 and 1 then multiply those. Then simplfy.

[tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] divided by [tex]2\frac{3}{4}[/tex] is equal to [tex]\frac{1}{22}[/tex] we get by converting the mixed fraction to improper and divide them both.

The given expression is [tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] divided by [tex]2\frac{3}{4}[/tex].

Convert the mixed number [tex]2\frac{3}{4}[/tex] to an improper fraction.

[tex]2\frac{3}{4} = \frac{2 \times 4 + 3}{4}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{11}{4}[/tex]

Now, we can rewrite the expression as:

[tex]\frac{1}{8} \div \frac{11}{4}[/tex]

To divide fractions, we multiply the first fraction by the reciprocal of the second fraction:

[tex]\frac{1}{8} \times \frac{4}{11}[/tex]

Next, let's simplify the multiplication:

[tex]\frac{1 \times 4}{8 \times 11} = \frac{4}{88}[/tex]

We can further simplify the fraction by dividing the numerator and denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 4:

[tex]\frac{4}{88} = \frac{1}{22}[/tex]

Therefore,[tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] divided by [tex]2\frac{3}{4}[/tex] is equal to [tex]\frac{1}{22}[/tex].

To learn more on Fractions click:

https://brainly.com/question/10354322

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Answer:

i think 4 attires

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3:4 and 15:20

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is the fourth one because 3:4 and 15:20 are equivalent, so there's your answer. Hope it helps!