In 42 of the 64 years from 1950 through 2014,the S& P 500 finished higher after the first five days of trading (in 2011 there was virtually no change). In 37 out of 42 years, the S&P 500 finished higher for the year. Is a good first week a good omen for the upcoming year? The following table gives the first-week and annual performance over this 64-year period.

S&P 500's Annual Performance
First week Higher Lower Total
Higher 37 5 42
Lower 11 11 22
Total 48 16 64

a) If a year is selected at random,
what is the probability that the S&P 500 finished lower for the year?

b) Given that the S&P finished lower after the first five days of trading,
what is the probability that it finished lower for the year?

c) Are the two events "first week performance" and "annual performance"
independent or dependent? Explain why.

Answer:

240

Step-by-step explanation:

12 times 2 is 24

24 times 10 is 240

Have a nice day

Answer:

240 [tex]Inches^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

35 more bottles than bags of popcorn

Step-by-step explanation:

Simply multiply both 14 and 21 by 5 and then subtract the larger number by the smaller one and you get your answer

Answer:

B) 44

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 54 + 82 = 180

x + 136 = 180

x = 180 - 136

x = 44

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:true

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

74

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost of half-a-dozeon dozen candies for this case will be $3.6

A dozen of a thing means 12 of such thing is in consideration. If we say we have a dozen pencils, then twe mean we have 12 pencils.

For this case, it is given that:

A dozen contains 12 quantities.

A dozen dozen candies means 12 times 12 = 144 candies

half a dozen dimes dozen cost = (12/2) × 12 dimes = 72 dimes

That means:

144 candies cost 72 dimes.

Dividing both quantities by 144 to get price of 1 candy:

144/144 = 1 candy's price = 72/144 dimes = 0.5 dimes = 0.05 dollars (1 dime = 0.1 dollars)

Half a dozen times dozen candies = 72 candies

1 candy costs 0.05 dollars

72 candies cost [tex]72 \times 0.05 = 3.6[/tex] dollars.

Thus, the cost of half-a-dozeon dozen candies for this case will be $3.6

Learn more about forming equations here:

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Answer:

x=12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

F. 5000militres

Step-by-step explanation:

1 litre= 1000ml

1 practice= 1000ml

therefore 5 practices= 5*1000ml

= 5000ml

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (d)

Step-by-step explanation:

The purpose of the mnemonic SOH CAH TOA is to help you remember that ...

   Tan = Opposite/Adjacent

Answer:

In the first one you are missing (a +7) so it's going to be 9(a +7) or when you factor that out it will be 9a 63

In the other one you are missing the (a +5) so it's going to be 7a(a + 5) or when you factor it out it will be 7a2 + 35a

Step-by-step explanation:

a2+ 9a + 20 = (a + 4) (a + 5)

a2 + 11a+ 28 = ( a + 7) ( a + 4 )

Answer:

the answer is 337

Step-by-step explanation:

-5 + 280 + 62

= 337

Answer:

337

Step-by-step explanation:

-5 plus 280 is 275

275 + 62 is...

337

Answer:

if your looking for a shape it would be a kite if your looking for a line it would be a parabolas.

si buscas una forma sería una cometa, si buscas una línea sería una parábola.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

52 is the correct answer

Answer:

Cool

Step-by-step explanation:

Thanks !!!

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  10 square units

Step-by-step explanation:

The shape is a trapezoid with bases of 2 units and 8 units. Its height is 2 units, so its area is ...

  A = 1/2(b1 +b2)h

  A = (1/2)(2 +8)(2) = 10

The area of the shape is 10 square units.

Answer:

250000

Step-by-step explanation:

P=986.50(1-(1+.0249/12)^-(12)(30) Then divide the answer you get by (.0249/12)

Answer: 250,000

Step-by-step explanation:

We must apply the formula for P0, that is,

P0=986.50(1−(1+0.024912)−30⋅12)(0.024912),

which gives P0=$250,000 to the nearest $1.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i think its b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

50% or 1/2 Could be 100% but i think it is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

Because Changing the coin will make no difference.

The probability of getting heads is same as the probability of tails which is [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex].

What is the probability?

The concept of probability is used to assign a numerical description to the likelihood of occurrence of an event.

Probability can be defined as the number of favorable outcomes divided by the total number of possible outcomes of an event.

Here given that,

The [tex]10[/tex] tosses of a coin were all heads, and you switch to a new coin.

So, the probability of getting all heads is [tex]2^{-n}[/tex]

And we have [tex]n=10[/tex],

Then, the probability of getting the heads is

[tex](^{n}C_k)(\frac{1}{2})^k(\frac{1}{2})^{n-k}=2^{-n}(^nC_k)[/tex]

Hence, the probability of getting heads is same as the probability of tails which is [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex].

To know more about the probability

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Answer:

24 cubic feet

Step-by-step explanation:

brainliest or 5 stars and heart or BOTH

correct me if im wrong

Answer:

Okay so A will equal 45 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

When you have a right triangle the other angle measures will be 45 degrees. The interior sum of all the angles will always be 180 degrees. The other angle will be 45 degrees as well

Answer:

Answer what?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:m=134

Step-by-step explanation:

that's the only correct answer

Answer:

4,500 millimeters per year.

Step-by-step explanation:

brainliest?

Answer:

4500 mm or 4.5 m

Step-by-step explanation:

45 mm/yr x 100 yr = 4500 mm = 4.5 m

Answer:

there is a 13 degree difference from DBC and DAC

 with that you divide 1540 by 13 as you get that 118.461 feet

that means that there is a 118.461 difference from B to C and A to B

so the answer is either 1658.461ft or 1421.539ft I am not sure if that is correct or not but best of luck mate  

Answer:

it is actually a very simple question first you add 4+9=13 then you multiply 5 times 13 which gets you the answer of 65

Answer:

4.67 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Shanna is planning a trip from Dallas, Texas, to San Diego, California.

She will travel about = 1,400 miles

The scale of a map is 300 miles = 1 inches

The trip of 1,400 miles = [tex]\frac{1400}{300}[/tex]

                                    = 4.66666 inches ≈ 4.67 inches

Her trip is 4.67 inches far on the map.