Is the answer clockwise (CW) or counter clockwise (CCW) ?

Answer:

The Energy transferred to the engine by burning gasoline = 216.67 KJ

Explanation:

The parameters given are:

The efficiency of the car engine, E = 30% = 0.3

Mass, m = 1300 kg

Initial velocity, u = 0, since the car is from rest

The final velocity, v = 10 m/s

Since the car was moving, we calculate its kinetic energy.

kinetic energy = ((1/2) (m) (v^2)

((1/2) (1300 kg) (10 m/s^2)

= 65,000 j

The Energy, Q transferred to the engine by burning gasoline in this case

= potential energy / The efficiency of the car engine, E

Q = 65,000 j / 0.3

= 216,666.66 J

Converting Joule to kilojoule

where 1KJ = 1000j

216,666.66 J = 216.67 KJ

Explanation:

the link enjoy

Answer:

Explanation:

If the ray were not deviated, it would travel straight through the mirror. Due to the mirror, the incident ray is reflected at 30°. The ray travels 30° + 30° = 60°. The angle of deviation is 180° - 60° = 120°.

Answer:

 Em₀ = U = m g h ,  Em_{f} = K = ½ m v²

Explanation:

When a car is on a ramp it has a certain amount of mechanical energy. At the highest point of the ramp the mechanical energy is fully potential given by

          Em₀ = U = m g h

As part of this energy descends down the ramp, part of this energy is transformed into kinetic energy and has one part of each, even though the sum remains the initial energy

            Em = K + U = ½ m v² + mg y

        y <h

when it reaches the bottom of the ramp it has no height therefore there is no potential energy, all of it has been transformed into kinetic energy

          Em_{f} = K = ½ m v²

This energy transformation is in the case that the friction force is zero.

If there is a friction force, it performs work against the low car, it is reflected in an increase in the internal energy (temperature) of the car. In this case the energy in the lower part is less than the initial one by a factor

         [tex]W_{nc}[/tex] = - fr L

therefore the numeraire values ​​of the velocity are lower, due to the energy lost by friction.

Answer:

1>500gf

1>300gf

its answer

Answer:

Making the transition from young adulthood to middle adulthood can be difficult for some people. There are many changes which affect areas in a person’s biology, their psychology, their social life and their spiritual relationship. There are multiple stages of development which may affect an individual during middle adulthood which can be defined between either 30-65 years old or 40-65 years old.

Explanation:

Answer: -9.8 m/s2

Explanation:

Answer:

We are given:

initial velocity (u) = 20m/s

acceleration (a) = 4 m/s²

time (t) = 8 seconds

displacement (s) = s m

Solving for Displacement:

From the seconds equation of motion:

s = ut + 1/2 * at²

replacing the variables

s = 20(8) + 1/2 * (4)*(8)*(8)

s = 160 + 128

s = 288 m

Answer:

electrical energy transforming into sound energy in speaker

Answer:

the first one. Electrical energy transforming into sound energy in a speaker

Answer:

1.3 m/s

Explanation:

It is given that,

Mass of bird A, [tex]m_A=2.2\ kg[/tex]

Mass of bird B, [tex]m_B=1.7\ kg[/tex]

Initial speed of bird A is 0 as it was at rest

Initial speed of bird B is 3 m/s

We need to find the velocity of the center of mass for this system of two birds. Let it is V. so,

[tex]v_{cm}=\dfrac{m_Au_A+m_Bu_B}{m_A+m_B}\\\\v_{cm}=\dfrac{2.2\times 0+1.7\times 3}{2.2+1.7}\\\\v_{cm}=1.3\ m/s[/tex]

So, the center of mass for this system is 1.3 m/s.

Answer:

Option C.

Explanation:

To know which velocity-time graph best describes the motion of the ball, let us calculate the velocity of the ball and the time taken for the ball to get the ground. This can be obtained as follow:

1. Determination of the velocity.

Initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²

Height (h) = 100 m

Final velocity (v) =.?

v² = u² + 2gh

v² = 0² + (2 × 9.8 × 100)

v² = 0 + 1960

v² = 1960

Take the square root of both side.

v = √(1960)

v = 44.27 m/s

2. Determination of the time taken.

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²

Height (h) = 100 m

Time (t) =.?

h = ½gt²

100 = ½ × 9.8 × t²

100 = 4.9 × t²

Divide both side by 4.9

t² = 100 / 4.9

Take the square root of both side

t = √(100 / 4.9)

t = 4.52 s

From the above illustration,

Initial time (t1) = 0 s

Final time (t2) = 4.52 s

Initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s

Final velocity (v) = 44.27 m/s

Thus, we can see that as the time increase, the velocity also increase. Therefore, option C gives the correct answer to the question.

By cooling down the food, the thermal energy in the food molecules is reduced.

A refrigerator is an appliance that is commonly used in the home for the purpose of cooling down a substnace especially water and drinks.

Due to the fact that the molecules that compose matter are is in a state of constant random motion, the food molecules contain thermal energy. Hence, by cooling down the food, the thermal energy in the food molecules is reduced.

Learn more about thermal energy: https://brainly.com/question/11278589

Answer:

Explanation:

Find the complete question attached

Using the principle of moment

Clockwise moment = Anticlockwise moment

AntiClockwise moment = M × 2.0

ACW moment = 2M

Clockwise moment = 40×4

Clockwise moment = 160kgcm

Equate both expression and calculate M

2M = 160

M = 160/2

M = 80kg

Hence the mass of his friend is 80kg

Answer:

-z

Explanation:

The force on a moving charge due to a magnetic field follows the right hand rule, so a positive charge, experiencing a magnetic deflection in the -y direction, while it moves in the direction of the x-axis, will do it  due to a magnetic field pointing in the +z direction.

As the electron has a negative charge, the magnetic field will point in the opposite direction, i.e., in the -z direction.

This question is incomplete, the complete question is;

The Figure shows a container that is sealed at the top by a moveable piston, Inside the container is an ideal gas at 1.00 atm. 20.0°C and 1.00 L.

"What will the pressure inside the container become if the piston is moved to the 1.60 L mark while the temperature of the gas is kept constant?"

Answer:

the pressure inside the container become 0.625 atm if the piston is moved to the 1.60 L mark while the temperature of the gas is kept constant

Explanation:

Given that;

P₁ = 1.00 atm

P₂ = ?

V₁ = 1 L

V₂ = 1.60 L

the temperature of the gas is kept constant

we know that;

P₁V₁ = P₂V₂

so we substitute

1 × 1 = P₂ × 1.60

P₂ = 1 / 1.60

P₂ = 0.625 atm

Therefore the pressure inside the container become 0.625 atm if the piston is moved to the 1.60 L mark while the temperature of the gas is kept constant

Answer:

It would change the amount of heat produced in the transmission line to four times the previous value.

Explanation:

Given;

initial voltage in the transmission line, V₁ = 500 kV = 500,000 V

Final voltage in the transmission line, V₂ = 1 MV = 1,000,000

The power lost in the transmission line due to heat is given by;

[tex]P = \frac{V^2}{R}[/tex]

Power lost in the first wire;

[tex]P_1 = \frac{V_1^2}{R}[/tex]

[tex]R = \frac{V_1^2}{P_1}[/tex]

Power lost in the second wire

[tex]P_2 = \frac{V_2^2}{R}\\\\ R = \frac{V_2^2}{P_2}[/tex]

Keeping the resistance constant, we will have the following equation;

[tex]\frac{V_2^2}{P_2} = \frac{V_1^2}{P_1} \\\\P_2 = \frac{V_2^2P_1}{V_1^2}\\\\[/tex]

[tex]P_2 = \frac{(1,000,000)^2P_1}{(500,000)^2}\\\\P_2 =4P_1[/tex]

Therefore, it would change the amount of heat produced in the transmission line to four times the previous value.

Answer:

46-D

47-C

48-F

49-A

50-B

I am not very sure I am right about those answers though.

Answer:

Covalent Bond

Explanation:

i took the test , mark me brainliest.

Answer: Electrical

Explanation: Atoms are tied together by electrical bonding forces.

Answer:

Explanation:

Have y’all seen steeleflag19 at all on here?

Answer:

The period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 seconds.

Explanation:

To determine the period of that same pendulum on the moon,

First, we will determine the value of g (which is a measure of the strength of Earth's gravity) on the Moon. Let the value of g on the Moon be [tex]g_{M}[/tex].

From the question, the strength of earth’s gravity is only 1/6th of the normal value. The normal value of g is 9.8 m/s²

∴ [tex]g_{M}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{6} \times 9.8 m/s^{2}[/tex]

[tex]g_{M}[/tex] = 1.63 m/s²

From the question, T=2π√L/g

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g} }[/tex]

We can write that,

[tex]T_{E} = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g_{E} } }[/tex] .......... (1)

Where [tex]T_{E}[/tex] is the period of the pendulum on Earth and [tex]g_{E}[/tex] is the measure of the strength of Earth's gravity

and

[tex]T_{M} = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g_{M} } }[/tex] .......... (2)

Where [tex]T_{M}[/tex] is the period of the pendulum on Moon and [tex]g_{M}[/tex] is the measure of the strength of Earth's gravity on the Moon.

Since we are to determine the period of the same pendulum on the moon, then, [tex]2\pi[/tex] and [tex]L[/tex] are constants.

Dividing equation (1) by (2), we get

[tex]\frac{T_{E} }{T_{M} } = \sqrt{\frac{g_{M} }{g_{E} } }[/tex]

From the question,

[tex]T_{E} = 4.9secs[/tex]

[tex]g_{E}[/tex] = 9.8 m/s²

[tex]g_{M}[/tex] = 1.63 m/s²

[tex]T_{M}[/tex] = ??

From,

[tex]\frac{T_{E} }{T_{M} } = \sqrt{\frac{g_{M} }{g_{E} } }[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4.9}{T_{M} } = \sqrt{\frac{1.63}{9.8} }[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4.9}{T_{M} } = 0.40783[/tex]

[tex]T_{M} =\frac{4.9}{0.40783 }[/tex]

[tex]T_{M} = 12.01 secs[/tex]

∴ [tex]T_{M} = 12.0secs[/tex]

Hence, the period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 seconds.

Answer:

The period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 s

Explanation:

Given;

period of a pendulum’s swinging, T=2π√L/g

the strength of earth’s gravity on moon, g₂ = ¹/₆(g₁)

period of pendulum on Earth, T₁ = 4.9 s

period of pendulum on moon, T₂ = ?

The length of the pendulum is constant, make it the subject of the formula;

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g} }\\\\\frac{T}{2\pi} = \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}\\\\(\frac{T}{2\pi} )^2 =\frac{L}{g}\\\\\frac{T^2}{4\pi^2} = \frac{L}{g}\\\\ L = \frac{gT^2}{4\pi^2}\\\\L_1 = L_2\\\\\frac{g_1T_1^2}{4\pi^2}= \frac{g_2T_2^2}{4\pi^2}\\\\g_1T_1^2 = g_2T_2^2\\\\T_2^2 = \frac{g_1T_1^2}{g_2} \\\\T_2 = \sqrt{\frac{g_1T_1^2}{g_2}}\\\\ T_2 = \sqrt{\frac{g_1T_1^2}{g_1/6}}\\\\ T_2 = \sqrt{\frac{6*g_1T_1^2}{g_1}}\\\\T_2 = \sqrt{6T_1^2}\\\\ T_2 = T_1\sqrt{6} \\\\T_2 = (4.9)\sqrt{6}\\\\ T_2 = 12.0 \ s[/tex]

Therefore, the period of that same pendulum on the moon is 12.0 s

Answer:

South pole

Explanation:

In a bar magnet, field lines go from the North Pole to the South Pole (outside the magnet).

As the earth magnetic field lines go from South Pole (geographic) to the North one, this means that the North pole (geographic) really behaves as a South Pole (magnetic).

Answer:

Hello your question is incomplete below is the complete question

Calculate Earths velocity of approach toward the sun when earth in its orbit is at an extremum of the latus rectum through the sun, Take the eccentricity of Earth's orbit to be 1/60 and its Semimajor axis to be 93,000,000

answer : V = 1.624* 10^-5 m/s

Explanation:

First we have to calculate the value of a

a = 93 * 10^6 mile/m  * 1609.344 m

  = 149.668 * 10^8 m

next we will express the distance between the earth and the sun

[tex]r = \frac{a(1-E^2)}{1+Ecos\beta }[/tex]   --------- (1)

a = 149.668 * 10^8

E (eccentricity ) = ( 1/60 )^2

[tex]\beta[/tex] = 90°

input the given values into equation 1 above

r = 149.626 * 10^9 m

next calculate the Earths velocity of approach towards the sun using this equation

[tex]v^2 = \frac{4\pi^2 }{r_{c} }[/tex]   ------ (2)

Note :

Rc = 149.626 * 10^9 m

equation 2 becomes

([tex]V^2 = (\frac{4\pi^{2} }{149.626*10^9})[/tex]

therefore : V = 1.624* 10^-5 m/s

Answer: It will be about 44.1m

Explanation:

Answer:

His weight would be zero on the scale i.e he is weightless at that instance.

Explanation:

weight = mg

where m is the mass of the object, and g is the acceleration of gravity.

⇒ 810 = mg

During free fall, the weight of an object can be determined by:

W = mg - ma (provided that acceleration of gravity is greater than acceleration of the object)

where a is the acceleration of the object.

But since James fall at the acceleration of gravity, then:

g = a

mg = ma = 810 N

So that;

W = 810 - 810

    = 0 N

Therefore though the weight of James is 810 N, but the scale reads 0 N. this condition is referred to as weightlessness.

Answer:

c. initial (x and y)

Explanation:

When a projectile is launched at a velocity with a launch angle, to solve it, we must first resolve the initial velocity into the x and y components. To do this will mean we have to treat it like a triangle due to the launch angle and the direction of the projectile.

Therefore, we will have to make use of trigonometric ratios which is also known by the mnemonic "SOH CAH TOA"

Thus, this method resolves the initial x and y velocities.

Answer:

50 m

Explanation:

The relationship between the intensity of sound in dB and distance is given by the formula:

[tex]B_2=B_1+20log(\frac{R_1}{R_2} )\\\\Where \ B_2\ is \ the\ sound\ intensity\ at\ distance\ R_2\ and\\B_1\ is \ the\ sound\ intensity\ at\ distance\ R_1\ \\\\Given\ that: B_1=100\ dB, R_1=5\ m, B_2=80\ dB\\\\B_2=B_1+20log(\frac{R_1}{R_2} )\\\\80=100+20log(\frac{5}{R_2} )\\\\-20=20log(\frac{5}{R_2} )\\\\log(\frac{5}{R_2} )=-1\\\\\frac{5}{R_2}=10^{-1}\\\\\frac{5}{R_2}=0.1\\\\R_2=5/0.1=50\ m[/tex]

Answer:

The change in internal energy of the system is 2,054 J

Explanation:

The first law of thermodynamics relates the work and the transferred heat exchanged in a system through internal energy. This energy is neither created nor destroyed, it is only transformed.

Taking into account that the internal energy is the sum of all the energies of the particles that the system has, you have:

ΔU= Q + W

where U is the internal energy of the system (isolated), Q is the amount of heat contributed to the system and W is the work done by the system.

By convention, Q is positive if it goes from the environment to the system, or negative otherwise, and W is positive if it is carried out on the system and negative if it is carried out by the system.

In this case:

Replacing:

ΔU= 0.523 kJ + 1.531 kJ

Solving:

ΔU= 2.054 kJ = 2,054 J (being 1 kJ=1,000 J)

The change in internal energy of the system is 2,054 J