Lines j and k are parallel and cut by a transversal t. If m<1 = 4x – 20 and m<6 = 5x – 25, what is m<2?

Answer:

The p-value is less than the alpha (the level of significance) reject the null hypothesis. There is sufficient evidence at the α = 0.1 level of significance to conclude that μ>49.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(n+10)+9

{(n+10)+9}/2

[{(n+10)+9}/2]-5

All you have to do is follow the steps!

Think of a number - n

Add 10 - n + 10

Add the number you were thinking of - n + 10 + n

Divide by 2 - (n + 10 + n) / 2

Subtract 5 - ((n + 10 + n) / 2) -5

It may look hard, but its not as hard as you think. All you need to do is follow the steps!

Answer:

[tex]\sqrt{\frac{3x}{3} } + \frac{10}{109} x[/tex]

Step by step:

[tex]\sqrt{x-\frac{3}{7}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{49x-21}{7} }[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{\frac{49x-21}{7} }[/tex] ÷ 12x+7=[tex]\sqrt{\frac{7x-3x}{12}} + 7[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{\frac{7x-3x}{12}} + 7[/tex] ÷ 76.3x = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{3x}{3} } + \frac{10}{109} x[/tex]

Hope this helps!

Answer: No

Step-by-step explanation:

First add the 48.75 and 18.30 together.

second multiply 5.50 by 9

she would only earn 49.50 so she won’t be able to buy the bike and helmet

Answer:

0.0077

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given information;

Each outcome possesses the same probability of 1/6 in a single roll.

The required probability can be estimated by using the multinomial distribution;

Therefore;

[tex]P = \dfrac{5!}{2!\times 1!\times 1!\times\times 1! }\times (\dfrac{1}{6})^2\times (\dfrac{1}{6})\times (\dfrac{1}{6})\times (\dfrac{1}{6})[/tex]

[tex]P = 60\times (\dfrac{1}{36})\times\dfrac{1}{216}[/tex]

P = 0.0077

The required probability = 0.0077     to 4 decimal decimals

Answer:

it means when x =0

so 6*0+12y=60

12y=60

y=5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

In y intercept x = 0

so,we replace 0 in place of x

Step-by-step explanation:

6*0+12y=60

0+12y=60

y=60/12

y=5

Answer:

Part 1: y=2x-12

Part 2: 12=2x-y

Step-by-step explanation:

Given Information:

m (slope) = 2

There is a point: (5, -2)

PART 1

Solution: Use the formula:  [tex]y=m(x-x_{1} )+y_{1}[/tex]

y=2(x-(5))+(-2)

y=2x-10-2

y=2x-12

PART 2

y=2x-12         (from part 1)

0=2x-y-12      

12=2x-y

Answer:

It is the second graph.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The slope is 4

The equation is y=4x-7

Step-by-step explanation:

y-y/x-x I used this equation and plugged the numbers in.

Well, the only absolute value of -8 is 8.

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

Any absolute value of a negative, is the same number but in positive form.

Ex : I-6I = +6

Answer: n = -6

Step-by-step explanation:

3n+14=-4

Subtract 14 from both sides.

3n+14-14=-4-14

Simplify

3n=-18

Divide both sides by 3

3n/3 = -18/3

n=-6

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

P(X > 0.418) = 0.27425

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given;

Population mean; μ = 0.4 inch

Variance; Var = 0.0009

Sample mean; x¯ = 0.418

First of all let's get the standard deviation which is;

σ = √Var

σ = √0.0009

σ = 0.03

Now, z - score formula is;

z = (x¯ - μ)/σ

z = (0.418 - 0.4)/0.03

z = 0.6

We want to find the probability that the diameter of a randomly selected pipe will exceed 0.418 inch. Thus;

P(X > 0.418) = 1 - P(X ≤ 0.418)

From z-distribution table attached, P(X ≤ 0.418) = P(Z) = 0.72575

Thus;

P(X > 0.418) = 1 - 0.72575

P(X > 0.418) = 0.27425

Answer:

hgnbgnbgn

Step-by-step explanation:gnhgbnghnb

Answer:

1.66666666666666666666everlasting 6s

Step-by-step explanation:

250/150

5/3 ( divide by 50)

1 2/3 ( mixed

1.66666666667.everlasting 6s

Hope this helps :D

Answer:

1.666......

( 1.6 recurring).

Step-by-step explanation:

As both numbers are multiples of 10 it makes it a bit easier to divide both by 10 to give 25 and 15. This will give the same result as 250/150.

Now do a long division , 25 divided by 15:

        1 .66                    <-----------  25 / 15 = 1 .  1*15 goes below the 25.

    -------------------------

15 ) 25.0

       15      <---------- subtract 25 - 15 = 10

        100 <- bring down the zero(after the decimal point) & append to 10

          90 <  15 divides into 100 6 times to give 90 . Place 6 above line.

           100   < subtract 100 - 90 to give 10 then add 0

             90 < as before 100/15 = 6  to give 6*15 = 90

If you carry on as above you'll see that we get 1.6666...  and we could go on for ever. This is a recurring decimal and is usually written as 1.6 with a bar above the 6.

Answer:

12.4 feet per second

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1539.38cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

V=πr2h=π·72·10≈1539.3804cm³

Answer:

12x=0

Step-by-step explanation:

x=0 because it is

Answer:

x = 0 x = -10

Step-by-step explanation:

First, use the AC method to figure out, what times what equals 0 and what adds up to equal 10, which would be 0 and 10.

Secondly, you would factor it out and be with

(x + 0)(x +10)=0

Third, you would set each one equal to 0

x + 10 = 0 x + 0 = 0

Solve from there to get your two x's

x = 0 and x = -10

Answer:

8.5

Step-by-step explanation:

tan⁡θ=opp/adj

tan 66° = 19/x

xtan66° = 19

x = 19/ tan 66° = 8.45

Answer: x=0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution of the linear equation 72 ÷ x = 3.6 ÷ 0.015 will be 0.03.

The allocation of weights to the important variables that produce the calculation's optimum is referred to as a direct consequence.

A connection between a number of variables results in a linear model when a graph is displayed. The variable will have a degree of one.

The linear equation with one variable is given as,

72 ÷ x = 3.6 ÷ 0.015

Simplify the equation, then the value of 'x' is given as,

72 ÷ x = 3.6 ÷ 0.015

x ÷ 72 = 0.015 ÷ 36

x / 72 = 0.015 / 36

x / 2 = 0.015

x = 0.03

The solution of the linear equation 72 ÷ x = 3.6 ÷ 0.015 will be 0.03.

More about the solution of the equation link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/545403

#SPJ2

Answer:

FV= $3,725.07

Step-by-step explanation:

Giving the following information:

Initial investment (PV)= $3,294

Number of periods (n)= 5 years

Interest rate (i)= 2.6% = 0.026

To calculate the future value (FV), we need to use the following formula:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

FV= 3,294*(1.026^5)

FV= $3,725.07

Answer:

b. 9/50

Step-by-step explanation:

•the probability of the selected flight arriving on time: 820/1000 = 0.82

•find the probability of the flights not being selected by subtracting 0.82 from 1.00: 1.00-0.82=0.18

•now you look for the answer that equals to 0.18

50/1 =50 nope

9/50 =0.18 yes

41/50 =0.82 nope

1/4 = 0.25 nope

Answer:

Yes, they are coterminal.

Step-by-step explanation:

Coterminal angles are angles that are in multiples of -360 degrees or +360 degrees away from the initial angle.

Therefore, the easiest way to check if an angle is coterminal is set up an equation.

[tex]x + 117 = 477\\\\360 + 117 = 477\\\\477 = 477 \ \checkmark[/tex]

We get a true statement, which means that 117 is a coterminal angle of 477 and 477 is a coterminal angle of 117.

We can also determine the value in radians.

[tex]\displaystyle117 \times \frac{\pi}{180}\\\\\frac{117\pi}{180} = \frac{13\pi}{20}[/tex]

117° in radians is [tex]\displaystyle\frac{13\pi}{20}[/tex]. Coterminal angles for radians are multiples of [tex]2\pi[/tex], either negative or positive.

However, we also need to determine the value of 477 in radians too.

[tex]\displaystyle477\times\frac{\pi}{180}\\\\\frac{477\pi}{180} = \frac{53\pi}{20}[/tex]

So, if we add [tex]2\pi[/tex] to [tex]\frac{13\pi}{20}[/tex]:

[tex]\displaystyle\frac{13\pi}{20} + 2\pi\\\\\frac{13\pi}{20} + \frac{40\pi}{20} = \frac{53\pi}{20}[/tex]

Therefore, even in radians, 477° is an angle coterminal to 117°.

You are given 117°.

To find angles that are coterminal with 117°, we do the following:

117° + 360° = 477°

117° - 360° = 243°

As you can see, when we added 117° to 360°, we got 477°.

To answer your question, YES.

You now know that 117° and 477° are coterminal angles.

Keep in mind that 477° is not the only coterminal angle to 117°.

Answer:

4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

because x,y,z are in continuous proportion

=> x/y = y/z

<=> xz = y² =>

[tex]\frac{xz}{y} =y\\\\=>\frac{x^{3}z^{3} }{y^{3} }=y^{3}[/tex](1)

with (1), we have:

[tex]x^{2}y^{2}z^{2}(\frac{1}{x^{3} }+\frac{1}{y^{3} }+\frac{1}{z^{3} })\\\\= (xyz)^{2}(\frac{1}{x^{3} } +\frac{y^{3} }{x^{3}z^{3} }+\frac{1}{z^{3} })\\\\=(xyz)^{2} (\frac{x^{3}+y^{3}+z^{3} }{x^{3}z^{3}} )\\\\=y^{2}.\frac{x^{3}+y^{3}+z^{3} }{xz} \\\\= xz.\frac{x^{3}+y^{3}+z^{3} }{xz} \\\\=x^{3}+y^{3}+z^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

well if you multiply each of tjem you would only sabe money on c the other choices would cause you to lose money so its c

Answer:

10 teams, 2 students would be left out I think.

Hope this helped :)