Match each number to the appropriate muscle from the word bank below! (Due before class ends pls help!)

Match Each Number To The Appropriate Muscle From The Word Bank Below! (Due Before Class Ends Pls Help!)

Answers

Answer 1

1. Deltiods

2. Pectoralis major

3. Triceps

4. Trapezius

5. Quadriceps

6. Abdominals

7. Glueteus maximus

10. Biceps

11. Hamstrings

12. Erector Spinae

Different types of muscle are

1. Deltiods: Your shoulder, a ball-and-socket joint that joins your arm to your body's trunk, contains the deltoid muscles. Your arms can be moved in a variety of ways with the aid of your deltoid muscles. Additionally, they safeguard and support your shoulder joint.

2. Pectoralis major: The largest and most superior muscle of the anterior chest wall is the pectoralis major. It is a substantial fan-shaped muscle that forms the anterior wall of the axilla and is located beneath the breast tissue.

3. Triceps: On the dorsal side of the upper arm, there is a big, thick muscle called the triceps brachii. On the back of the arm, it frequently takes the form of a horseshoe. The elbow joint extension is the main purpose of the triceps.

4. Trapezius: Either of a pair of substantial triangular muscles that move the head and shoulder blade and span the back of the neck and shoulders.

5. Quadriceps: A knee extensor and a hip flexor, the quadriceps femoris. It is made up of the rectus femoris, three vastus muscles, and one other muscle.

6. Abdominals: The abdominal region of the trunk connects the thorax and pelvis, and the abdominal muscles are the muscles that make up the abdominal walls.

7. Glueteus maximus: The gluteus maximus is a quadrangular-shaped, large, meaty muscle. It is a sizable muscle that contributes significantly to keeping the upper body in an upright position.

8. Latissimus Dorsi: The majority of the lower posterior thorax is taken up by the large, flat latissimus dorsi muscle. Although the muscle primarily serves the upper extremity, it is also thought of as a respiratory auxiliary muscle.

9. Gastrocnemius: The gastrocnemius muscle is a sophisticated muscle that is crucial to posture and walking. It impairs hip and lumbar motion as well as the entire lower limb.

10. Biceps: The biceps or biceps brachii is a sizable muscle that is located on the front of the upper arm, between the shoulder and the elbow (Latin: musculus biceps brachii, "two-headed muscle of the arm").

11. Hamstrings: The rear of the thigh is where the hamstring muscles are located. There are three hamstring muscles: Biceps femoris, Semitendinosus, and Semimembranosus.

12. Erector Spinae: The spinal erectors, also known as the erector spinae, are a group of muscles that rotate and straighten the back.

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Related Questions

Food proteins are used most efficiently when we ______

Answers

Food proteins are used most efficiently when we are ingesting enough fats and carbs to satisfy our calorie demands.

Animal-based meals (meat, poultry, fish, eggs, and dairy products) frequently contain all the required amino acids, but plant-based foods (fruits, vegetables, grains, nuts, and seeds) frequently don't. To create and repair tissues, your body needs proteins. In addition, protein is used to create hormones, enzymes, and other bodily compounds.

A crucial component of blood, muscles, cartilage, skin, and bones is protein. maintains healthy skin, hair, and nails while helping the immune system. For a typical sedentary adult, 0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight is the recommended dietary amount to avoid deficiency.

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alcohol intake in smokers is strongly associated with cancers of the:

Answers

All alcoholic drinks involve red and white wine, beer, and liquor, which are linked with cancer. The more you drink, the higher your cancer risk.

Does alcohol or smoking cause more cancer?

Established on the statistical analysis the researchers say that drinking a bottle of wine a week conveys the same lifetime cancer risk as smoking up to 10 cigarettes a week in women and 5 in men.

Although the dangers of drinking and smoking are very dissimilar, on the report of annual death numbers, smoking is interior than drinking. In the United States, an estimated 88,000 people die from alcohol-related sources every year, but about 480,000 people die from tobacco.

So we can conclude that  "It's gasoline and matches," he says. Tobacco and alcohol alone each increase the risk of assorted cancers.

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the nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 13 year old dx with epilepsy. what activities should she avoid?

Answers

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 13 year old dx with epilepsy, activities should she avoid:

Avoid risky activities like scuba diving and mountain climbing. Under these circumstances, a seizure can result in a tragic accident.Avoid swimming alone or engaging in comparable activities without a companion.

A common disorder that affects the brain and frequently results in seizures is epilepsy. Bursts of electrical activity that briefly impair the functioning of the brain called seizures. They can result in a variety of symptoms.

Although epilepsy can begin at any age, it typically does so in children or those over 60.

Often, it lasts a lifetime, but it occasionally gets better gradually with time.

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Offer 3 pieces of specific advice about dating

Answers

Answer:

Don’t Fall in Love with Potential

Believe People When They Show You Who They Are

Avoid Being Manipulated

What is one way that a latrine is better for the environment than a flush toilet

Answers

Answer:

the fecal nutrients go straight back to the environment and less water is

Explanation:


1. Jack gathered 23,567 leaves while raking the lawn. His dog, Spike, ran through
leaves and scattered 2,091 out of the pile. How many leaves are left in the pile?

Answers

Answer: Its 21,467

Explanation: Its easy because all you have to do is subtract 2,091 from 23,567 which gives you 21,467. So 23,567 - 2,091 = 21,467.

explain the difference between whole grains and refined grains. About how much of each type do you consume?

Answers

Whole grains are ones that are in their purest most simple form that came straight from a plant, while refined grains are ones that are processed which can sometimes mean that certain nutrients are removed

which statement(s) are true about your duty to act?
a. Duty to act occurs when employment requires it.
b. Duty to act follows guidelines for standards of care.
c. Duty to act occurs when a preexisting relationship exists.
d. all of these answers are correct

Answers

d. all of these answers are correct, statement(s) are true about your duty to act.

A legal obligation to act obligates a party to take the necessary steps to stop harm from being done to another person or to the broader public. An individual may be held to a standard of reasonable care to avoid harm or injury under personal injury law.

A obligation to act is frequently imposed by a legislation or a contractual arrangement. Examples comprise:

The obligation of a doctor to treat patients

A landowner's responsibility to keep individuals who are allowed into his property safe

Duty of a restaurant owner to provide suitable fire exits for customers

Parent's responsibility to take proactive measures to protect his children and third parties from them.

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which is not a symptom of a foodborne illness

Answers

Fever

Hope this helps:)

4. Eugene is suffering from heart failure and needs critical care. Because he has a disease in his pulmonary valve, the doctor needs to be mindful of which medication he prescribes to him. Which medication should the doctor avoid, and which is likely safe considering Eugene’s condition? What effects might Eugene experience after taking the medication he needs?

Answers

Although medication cannot cure issues with the heart valves, it is occasionally used as part of the treatment, such as the blood-thinning (anticoagulant) pulmonary valve?used after receiving a prosthetic heart valve.

What is medication is suitable for pulmonary valve?

Heart operations and treatments are used to treat pulmonary valve stenosis: Balloon valve surgery A flexible tube (catheter) with a balloon on the tip is inserted by the physician into an artery, typically in the groin. X-rays are utilized to direct the catheter to the heart's restricted valve.

Therefore, medicine may also be helpful if heart valve dysfunction has resulted in additional health issues, such as heart failure.

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when grandpa has difficulty reading the newspaper that is 20 inches from his face, but can clearly see the television that is 20 feet away, he most likely has

Answers

He most likely has Presbyopia

your ____ is how you act

Answers

Answer: Pretty sure it's attitude.

Explanation:

Since, your attitude shows how you are as a person it physically explains how you act

Hope this helps! :)

A condition that may be severe but resolves with treatment is?

Answers

Answer:

appendix appendix appendix

other than taking an over-the-counter remedy or, if the symptoms are severe, a prescription drug, nothing can be done to help with dysmenorrhea or painful menstrual periods.

a. true
b. false

Answers

If the symptoms are severe, a prescription drug, nothing can be done to help with dysmenorrhea or painful menstrual periods. True .

Menstrual cramps (dysmenorrhea) are throbbing or cramping pains within the lower stomach. Many women have menstrual cramps simply earlier than and during their menstrual durations. For a few girls, the soreness is merely demanding.

Ladies with primary dysmenorrhea have ordinary contractions of the uterus due to a chemical imbalance inside the frame. for example, the chemical prostaglandin manipulate the contractions of the uterus. Secondary dysmenorrhea is due to other clinical situations, most customarily endometriosis.

Period cramps can sense like an pain – they may be sharp and stabbing or a regular, dull ache. you may sense them lower inside the abdomen than your stomach and the pain can reach your upper legs and lower again. you are belly can be disenchanted, but duration cramps might be lower on your abdomen than a stomach ache.

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an l-type calcium channel in the muscle cell membrane, activated upon depolarization, couple depolarization signal to release of calcium

Answers

Dihydropyridine receptor is an l-type calcium channel in the muscle cell membrane, activated upon depolarization, couples the depolarization signal to release calcium.

In skeletal muscle, the dihydropyridine receptor (DHPR), a voltage-dependent calcium channel by nature, mainly serves as a voltage sensor to initiate intracellular calcium release for excitation-contraction coupling.

Excitation-contraction coupling (EC) is a critical step in the contraction of skeletal and cardiac muscle, and it is mediated by interactions between two Ca2+ ion channel proteins called the dihydropyridine receptor (DHPR) and the ryanodine receptor (RyR).

Different cell types, including skeletal and cardiac muscle, express the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels dihydropyridine receptors (DHPRs) and the intracellular Ca2+ release channels ryanodine receptors (RyRs).

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you are interested in testing the efficacy of a drug on a set of patients. you observed their conditions before and after taking a drug. which of the following hypothesis testing would you use to determine the impact of the drug. g

Answers

The appropriate hypothesis testing to determine the impact of the drug would be a two-tailed hypothesis test.

What is hypothesis?
A hypothesis is a put forth explanation for just a phenomenon (plural: hypotheses). A hypothesis must be testable according to the scientific method for it to be considered a scientific hypothesis. Scientific hypotheses are typically based on prior observations that cannot be adequately explained by the current body of knowledge. Despite the frequent confusion between the terms "hypothesis" and "theory," a scientific hypothesis differs from a scientific theory. A working hypothesis is an accepted theory that has been tentatively supported and is put forth for further investigation. Any of these definitions of the word "hypothesis" can be referenced by the adjective "hypothetical," which means "having the nature of a hypothesis" or "being assumed to exist as just an immediate consequence of a hypothesis."

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An investment banker with chronic renal failure informs the nurse of the choice for continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis. Which is the best response by the nurse?

a. "The risk of peritonitis is greater with this type of dialysis."
b. "This type of dialysis will provide more independence."
c. "Peritoneal dialysis will require more work for you."
d. "Peritoneal dialysis does not work well for every client."

Answers

An investment banker with chronic renal failure informs the nurse of the choice for continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis and the nurse responds by saying, b. "This type of dialysis will provide more independence."

Once a treatment alternative has been chosen by the client, the nurse ought to support the client in this call. Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis can offer a lot of independence for this client and supports the client's call for treatment mode.

The danger of redness is bigger, and symptoms ought to be mentioned as a part of the management of the disorder. Peritoneal  dialysis  is an efficient methodology of dialysis  for several clients. This procedure filters the blood in a very totally different approach than will the additional common blood-filtering procedure referred to as haemodialysis.

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A nurse preparing to teach a client about their newly prescribed cancer treatment should consider addressing which primary reason for non-adherence to the medication regimen?

Answers

A nurse should think about discussing the method of medicine administration and the negative effects of medication for non-adherence to the medication schedule while planning to inform a client about their newly prescribed cancer therapy.

A variety of drugs are used in the treatment of cancer. All of these drugs have the potential to have negative side effects, preventing patients from feeling "better" after taking them. The combination of injections and negative effects may cause patients to stop taking their prescription medications. Time restrictions, family duties, the cancer remission rate, and the attitude of the healthcare provider are less likely to have an impact on medication adherence.

Radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and surgery are all possible cancer therapies. Testing for biomarkers is a means to find genes, proteins, and other components (also known as tumour markers or biomarkers) that can reveal information about cancer. Chemotherapy is a type of cancer treatment that employs drugs to eradicate cancer cells. Immunotherapy, a type of cancer treatment, helps your immune system fight cancer. High doses of radiation are used in radiation therapy, a type of cancer treatment, to destroy cancer cells and reduce tumour size. A type of cancer treatment known as targeted therapy targets the alterations in cancer cells that promote their growth, division, and spread.

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What is the appropriate adequate intake value for fluid intake per day for women?.

Answers

The appropriate adequate intake value for fluid intake per day for women as per the The National Academy of Medicine is 9 cups for healthy women, or 72 ounces.

What is by adequate intake of fluid?
Multiple variables affect this:

Your weight is a major factor in how much fluids you need to drink.The amount you exercise: On days when you engage in moderate exercise, you typically need an additional 2 cups of water.The weather: You should drink more if you are out in the sun.The amount you are excreting or losing: If you are suffering diarrhea or vomiting, you should replace the fluids you are losing.

Adequate Fluid Intake: Why It's Important

To work properly, water is essential to every system in the body. The fluids that make up 60% of your body weight include.It helps your cells receive nutrition and flushes contaminants. Provides ear, nose, and throat tissues with a moist environment (which helps prevent viruses from entering)

For healthy men and women, the National Academy of Medicine recommends an appropriate fluid consumption of roughly 13 cups and 9 cups per day, respectively. One cup is equal to 8 ounces. Those who are extremely active or exposed to highly warm regions may require higher quantities.

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The nurse plans to assess an adult clients kidneys for tenderness. The nurse should assess the area at the:
A. Right upper quadrant
B. Left upper quadrant
C. External oblique angle
D. Costovertebral angle

Answers

The nurse plans to assess an adult clients kidneys for tenderness and the nurse should assess the area at the D. Costovertebral angle.

Kidneys tenderness is the physical discomfort within the kidneys, organs situated underneath the lower ribs within the back. excretory organ pain will have causes that are not thanks to underlying sickness. Examples embody holding excretion for too long, trauma or contractile organ back pain that is not truly returning from the excretory organ.

The costovertebral angle (CVA) is found on your back at very cheap of your ribcage at the twelfth rib. it is the 90-degree angle fashioned between the curve of that rib and your spine. “Costo” comes from the Latin word for rib, and “vertebra” comes from the Latin word for joint.

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Which of the following conditions would most likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral
palsy?
A. Paralysis
B. Seizure disorder
C. Type 2 diabetes
D. Brain tumors

Answers

B. Seizure disorder most likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral

palsy.

Epilepsy, commonly known as epileptic seizure disease, is a chronic brain illness defined by repeated unprovoked seizures that happen more than 24 hours apart and are unrelated to reversible stimuli. An epileptic seizure is not regarded as a single episode. Although epilepsy is frequently idiopathic, it can also be indicative of a number of brain conditions, including abnormalities, strokes, and tumors.

Epilepsy with a recognized etiology is considered symptomatic epilepsy (eg, brain tumor, stroke). It generates what are known as symptomatic epileptic seizures. Neonatal and elderly persons experience these seizures the most frequently.

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a nurse is taking an adult client's temperature rectally. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Rotate the probe if any resistance is met as the thermometer is inserted.
b. Insert the probe to aim at the cliens petvicarea.
c. Dip the probe about 0.58 cm(2 in) into a fube of fubrkant
d. Insert the probe about 2.5 cm(1in) into the chent's ancis.

Answers

The action taken by the nurse must be

d. Insert the probe about 2.5 cm(1in) into the chent's ancis.

What is Rectal measurement?

Rectal measurement. Taking a rectal measurement is the most reliable way to obtain a core temperature value. The variation in results with this type of measurement is low and the accuracy is particularly high. The normal temperature range is approximately between 36.6 °C and 38.0 °C.

For rectal temperature measurement, the thermometer bulb must be coated with a lubricant. Then the thermometer is gently inserted about 1.25 to 2.5 centimeters into the rectum with the child lying on their stomach. The child must be prevented from moving.

How to measure rectal fever?

How to take a rectal temperature (more accurate in younger children) Lay the child, face down, on your legs or in your lap. Lubricate the tip of the digital thermometer (with a flexible tip so it doesn't hurt) with vaseline or cold water. Gently introduce it into the rectum (≈1 cm).

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which action by the registered nurse (rn) represents her or his leadership ability?

Answers

The nurse as a leader should supervise the tasks assigned to unlicensed nursing personnel to ensure the client's safety.

Nurse managers are required in all healthcare institutions to manage staff personnel.  As nurse leaders prepare for a major migration of retiring registered nurses and an inflow of new, green talent, the healthcare industry becomes increasingly difficult.

The development of new nurse leaders has been a low priority for current governments despite warnings of a talent deficit in the healthcare industry for the previous few decades. The baby boomer generation is getting older, their need for healthcare is rising, and there are a lot of registered nurses who will be retiring shortly. These three concerns are of great concern to nurse leaders today.

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____________ are used to measure what a child has already learned and are often the basis for measuring school quality for initiatives like the No Child Left Behind Act.

Answers

Achievement tests are used to measure what a child has already learned and are often the basis for measuring school quality for initiatives like the No Child Left Behind Act.

Achievement test is a test of knowledge or skill that has been developed in children at schools or activities performed at school. These achievement tests are further divided into various types however the most common are the standardization tests like SATs which are required for college entries at countries like USA.

In schools, these tests are conducted at regular intervals to test the level of education for which the children might be prepared. The different types of tests are as accuracy test, speed test, power test, diagnostic and prognostic test.

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Which is used as vector in gene therapy for SCID?

Answers

Lentiviral vectors are used in gene therapy for SCID as they are efficient in inserting gene of interest into patient’s stem cells.

What is SCID?

Severe combined immunodeficiency or SCID attacks the immune system of the body. It is most common in babies. It infects white blood cells (B and T cells). Due to this reason, the body becomes susceptible to many infections and diseases like, ear infections, sinus, pneumonia, diarrhea, etc.

SCID is diagnosed by screening babies by doing blood tests. Screening makes early diagnosis and treatment possible and effective.

The best method of treatment for SCID is stem cell transplant, also called bone marrow transplant.

Lentiviral vector is the most common vector used in gene therapy during stem cell transplant.

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the nurse is working with a child with a mental health problem and the family must be included in the care. which is one of the best ways the nurse can advocate for the child?
a. Support transferring the child to a healthy living environment.
b. Teach the parents age-appropriate expectations of the child.
c. Reinforce the parents' expectations of the child's behavior.
d. Interpret the child's thoughts and feelings to the parent.

Answers

The nurse is working with a child with a mental health problem and the family must be included in the care. one of the best ways the nurse can advocate for the child . Interpret the child's thoughts and feelings to the parent.

Intellectual contamination, additionally known as intellectual fitness issues, refers to a huge variety of mental health situations — issues that have an effect on your temper, wondering and behavior. Examples of mental contamination encompass despair, tension issues, schizophrenia, ingesting issues and addictive behaviors.

Mental fitness includes our emotional, mental, and social nicely-being. It affects how we assume, sense, and act. It additionally enables decide how we cope with pressure, relate to others, and make healthful alternatives. intellectual health is vital at each level of life, from early life and youth thru adulthood.

Pressure is a feeling of emotional or physical tension. it may come from any event or notion that makes you experience frustrated, angry, or fearful. stress is your frame's response to a task or call for. In quick bursts, pressure can be effective, which includes when it helps you keep away from risk or meet a closing date.

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Individual providers who receive limited federal financial assistance are not required to provide communication and language assistance to their patients with limited english proficiency.

a. True
b. False

Answers

The given statement "Individual providers who receive limited federal financial assistance are not required to provide communication and language assistance to their patients with limited English proficiency (LEP)" is false.

The federal government's departments must be consistent with one another. Inconsistency or inconsistent guidelines could mislead those who receive federal money, drive up expenses unnecessarily, and prevent LEP people from having meaningful access, which is what this advice is intended to remedy. This entails balancing multiple principles, as is typical of most government efforts. Although this Guidance goes into considerable detail about that balance, it's crucial to remember the fundamental ideas that underpin it. First, we need to make sure that initiatives supported by the federal government and geared toward the American public don't exclude some people just because they have trouble speaking English. This is especially important because LEP individuals frequently make up a sizable number of those enrolled in federally funded programmes. Second, we must accomplish this goal while devising practical ways to lessen the financial burden that LEP requirements place on small corporations, local governments, or nonprofit organisations that receive federal funding.

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Whether a person needs a sports drink during exercise depends on
A. what time of day the person is working out.
B. whether the person ate breakfast that day.
C. the amount that he or she sweats.
D. the type of exercise being performed.

Answers

D

the type of exercise being performed seems the most accurate.
Answer: letter D

Explanation: the type of exercise you perform will affect how many electrolytes you burn. The more you burn affects whether you need a sports drink

All americans should limit their intake of certain nutrients found on the labels. Which is not one?.

Answers

Dietry fibre is not what all American should limit their intake.

Labels have to listing the real quantity and DV for calcium, iron, potassium and diet D; nutrients A and C are not required. percentage of day by day Values for nutrients consisting of sodium, fiber and nutrition D had been updated. “brought sugars” ought to be listed on labels in grams and percent of every day cost.

They remember those underneath-fed on nutrients—potassium, calcium, dietary fiber, and nutrition D—of public health challenge due to the fact their low consumption are associated with continual ailment, inclusive of cardiovascular sickness, type-2 diabetes, and excessive blood stress.

The vitamins maximum commonly deficient in vegetation are phosphorus, nitrogen, and iron. Phosphorus may be present inside the soil, but in portions too small to be taken up correctly. Nitrogen might be present, but in a form that can not be used by vegetation. In alkaline soils, a few plants are unable to take up iron.

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Which statement BEST explains why intrinsic motivation generally works better than
extrinsic motivation? (1 point)
O Extrinsic motivation generally comes from within.
O Intrinsic motivation is more consistent than extrinsic motivation.
O Those who need extrinsic motivation probably do not want to do it.
O Those who have intrinsic motivation are naturally more disciplined.

Answers

Answer:

intrinsic motivation is more consistent than extrinsic motivation

Explanation:

I took the test

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