Objects 1 and 2 attract each other with a gravitational force of 34 units. If the distance separating objects 1 and 2 is changed to one-third the original value, then the new gravitational force will be ____ units.

(a) The height of the roller coaster at 120,000 potential energy is 122.45 m.

(b) The velocity of the roller coaster at 0 J kinetic energy is 0.

(c) The height of the roller coaster at 60,000 potential energy is 61.23 m.

(d) The velocity of the roller coaster at 60,000 J kinetic energy is 34.64 m/s.

(e) The height of the roller coaster at 40,000 potential energy is 40.82 m.

(f) The velocity of the roller coaster at 80,000 J kinetic energy is 40 m/s.

The given parameters:

When the kinetic energy = 0 and potential energy = 120,000 J

The height of the roller coaster is calculated as follows;

P.E = mgh

[tex]h = \frac{P.E}{mg}\\\\h = \frac{120,000}{100 \times 9.8} \\\\h = 122.45 \ m[/tex]

Since the kinetic energy = 0, the velocity of the roller coaster = 0

When the potential energy, P.E = 60,000 J, the kinetic energy, K.E is calculated as;

P.E + K.E = M.A

P.E + K.E = 120,000

60,000 + K.E = 120,000

K.E = 120,000 - 60,000

K.E = 60,000 J

The height of the roller coaster at 60,000 potential energy is calculated as follows;

[tex]h = \frac{P.E}{mg} \\\\h = \frac{60,000}{100 \times 9.8} \\\\h =61.23 \ m[/tex]

The velocity of the roller coaster at 60,000 J kinetic energy is calculated as follows;

[tex]K.E = \frac{1}{2} mv^2\\\\v^2 = \frac{2K.E}{m} \\\\v = \sqrt{ \frac{2K.E}{m}} \\\\v = \sqrt{ \frac{2\times 60,000}{100}}\\\\v = 34.64 \ m/s[/tex]

When the potential energy, P.E = 40,000 J, the kinetic energy, K.E is calculated as;

P.E + K.E = M.A

40,000 + K.E = 120,000

K.E = 120,000 - 40,000

K.E = 80,000

The height of the roller coaster at 40,000 potential energy is calculated as follows;

[tex]h = \frac{P.E}{mg} \\\\h = \frac{40,000}{100 \times 9.8} \\\\h = 40.82 \ m[/tex]

The velocity of the roller coaster at 80,000 J kinetic energy is calculated as follows;

[tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{2K.E}{m} } \\\\v = \sqrt{\frac{2\times 80,000}{100} } \\\\v = 40 \ m/s[/tex]

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Answer:

Force = mass × acceleration.

Answer:

340

Explanation:

Sorry I don't know how to do this one yet, I just found the answer in a textbook.

The angle that vector a makes with the +x axis is closest to 23.

The direction of a vector is represented tangent of angle equal to the ratio of the y component and the x component of the vector quantity.

tangent of angle = y/x

angle = tan⁻¹ (-2.3/5.3)

angle = 23.46°

Thus, the angle that vector makes with +x is 23.

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Answer:

A

Explanation:

Answer:

No

Explanation:

Changing momentum of any kind requires work. Work is a force acting over a distance. While holding the weights at arms length and spinning will create a force (centripetal), there is no radial distance change incurred. Releasing the weights will reduce the force to zero, still no work done and no change in angular momentum.

If he was holding the weights at arms length while spinning and he pull his hands to his chest, there now exists both the centripetal force and a distance in the direction of that force (inward radial) this work will result in an increase in angular velocity as moment of inertia has decreased with the work done.

No, the skater doesn't succeed in changing his angular velocity.

The final angular velocity of the skater is determined by applying the principle of conservation of angular momentum as shown below;

Li = Lf

[tex]Ii\omega _i = I_f \omega _f[/tex]

where;

When the skater holds the weight, the momnet of inertia of both arms is the same. Also when the skater drops the weight, the moment of inertia of both arms is still the same. Thus, at any instant, the moment of inertia of the two arms is the same.

To change the angular speed, the initial and final moment of inertia of the two arms must be different. Thus, the skater doesn't succeed in changing his angular velocity.

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Hi there!

We can begin by using the work-energy theorem in regards to an oscillating spring system.

Total Mechanical Energy = Kinetic Energy + Potential Energy

For a spring:

[tex]\text{Total ME} = \frac{1}{2}kA^2\\\\\text{KE} = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\\\\PE = \frac{1}{2}kx^2[/tex]

A = amplitude (m)

k = Spring constant (N/m)

x = displacement from equilibrium (m)

m = mass (kg)

We aren't given the mass, so we can solve for kinetic energy by rearranging the equation:

ME = KE + PE

ME - PE = KE

Thus:

[tex]KE = \frac{1}{2}kA^2 - \frac{1}{2}kx^2\\\\[/tex]

Plug in the given values:

[tex]KE = \frac{1}{2}(20)(0.3^2) - \frac{1}{2}(20)(0.3^2) = \boxed{0 \text{ J}}[/tex]

We can also justify this because when the mass is at the amplitude, the acceleration is at its maximum, but its instantaneous velocity is 0 m/s.

Thus, the object would have no kinetic energy since KE = 1/2mv².

Answer:

I don't know he he.

just joking

The rolling disk's initial angular momentum is mR√[2(gR + v²)]/2

Using the law of conservation of energy, the initial mechanical energy E of the disk equals its final mechanical energy E' as it climbs the step.

So, E = E'

1/2Iω + 1/2mv² + mgh = 1/2Iω' + 1/2mv'² + mgh'

where I = rotational inertia of disk = 1/2mR² where m = mass of disk and R = radius of disk, ω = initial angular speed of disk, v = initial velocity of disk, h = initial height of disk = 0 m, ω' = final angular speed of disk = 0 rad/s (assumung it stops at the top of the step), v' = final velocity of disk = 0 m/s (assumung it stops at the top of the step), and h' = final height of disk = R/2.

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

1/2Iω² + 1/2mv² + mgh = 1/2Iω'² + 1/2mv'² + mgh'

1/2(1/2mR² )ω² + 1/2mv² + mg(0) = 1/2I(0)² + 1/2m(0)² + mgR/2

mR²ω²/4 + 1/2mv² + 0 = 0 + 0 + mgR/2

mR²ω²/4 + 1/2mv² = mgR/2

R²ω²/4 = gR/2 + 1/2v²

R²ω²/4 = (gR + v²)/2

ω² = 2(gR + v²)/R²

ω² = √[2(gR + v²)/R²]

ω = √[2(gR + v²)]/R

Since angular momentum L = Iω, the rolling disk's initial angular momentum is

L = 1/2mR² ×√[2(gR + v²)]/R

L = mR√[2(gR + v²)]/2

the rolling disk's initial angular momentum is mR√[2(gR + v²)]/2

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The units of the constant of proportionality between pressure and volume in alphabetical order are

1. Celsius (°C)

2. Fahrenheit (°F)

3. Kelvin (K)

The units for R, that is, the ideal gas constant are

1. J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

2. L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

We will start by completing the Boyle's Law stated

Boyle's Law states the volume and pressure of a gas are inversely proportional, provided that the temperature remains constant.

This means temperature is the constant of proportionality.

Now, we will name the three units of the constant of proportionality, that is, temperature. The units are

1. Degree Celsius (°C)

2. Degree Fahrenheit (°F)

3. Kelvin (K)

2. In the ideal gas equation (PV/nT=R), R represents the ideal gas constant.

The units for R, that is, the ideal gas constant are

1. J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

2. L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

Hence,

The units of the constant of proportionality between pressure and volume in alphabetical order are

1. Celsius (°C)

2. Fahrenheit (°F)

3. Kelvin (K)

The units for R, that is, the ideal gas constant are

1. J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

2. L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

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Answer:

Explanation:

F = ma

a = F/m

a = mBg / (mB + mA)

a = 3.5(9.8)/(3.5 + 3.4)

a = 4.971014...

a = 5.0 m/s²

If you want to use individual Free Body Diagrams

mass A will have downward weight and upward normal forces equal at mAg

and a horizontal force of string tension T

F = ma

T = mAa

mass B will have a downward force of mBg and an upward force of T

mBg - T = mBa

substitute for T

mBg - mAa = mBa

mBg = a(mB + mA)

a = mBg / (mB + mA)   which is identical to the above answer.

a.

The object's speed at 2.20 m below balcony level is 8.74 m/s

Let the balcony level be 0 m and the height above the balcony level be positive and height below the balcony level negative.

Using the principle of conservation of energy, the total energy at a vertical height of 1.89 m above the balcony level equals the total mechanical energy when the object is 2.20 m below the balcony level and

So, E = E'

U + K + f = U' + K' + f'

where U = initial potential energy at 1.89 m = mgh, K = initial kinetic energy at 1.89 m = 0 J(since it is released from rest), f = energy loss at 1.89 m = 0 J, U' = final potential energy at 2.20 m below balcony level = mgh', K = final kinetic energy at 2.20 m = 1/2mv², f' = energy loss at 1.89 m = 10%U = 0.10mgh(since 10% of the initial energy is lost).

So,

U + K + f = U' + K' + f'

mgh + 0 + 0 = mgh' + 1/2mv² + 0.10mgh

mgh = mgh' + 1/2mv² + 0.10mgh

Dividing through by m, we have

gh = gh' + 1/2v² + 0.10gh

So, gh -  0.10gh = gh' + 1/2v²

0.90gh = gh' + 1/2v²

1/2v² = 0.90gh - gh'

1/2v² = g(0.90h - h')

v² = 2g(0.90h - h')

Taking square-root of both sides, we have

v = √[2g(0.90h - h')]

where v = velocity of object at 2.20 m below balcony level, h = height above the balcony level = 1.89 m, h' = height below the balcony level = -2.20 m and  g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

v = √[2g(0.90h - h')]

v = √[2 × 9.8 m/s²{0.90 × 1.89 m - (-2.20 m)}]

v = √[2 × 9.8 m/s²(1.701 m + 2.20 m)]

v = √[2 × 9.8 m/s²(3.901 m)]

v = √[76.4596 m²/s²]

v = 8.74 m/s

So, the object's speed at 2.20 m below balcony level is 8.74 m/s

b.

Yes it does matter when we apply 10% loss before V calculations

We need to apply the 10 % loss before V calculations because this would give us a proper value for V since the energy is lost before V is obtained.

So, yes it does matter when we apply 10% loss before V calculations

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Answer: Im not entirly sure but I think It's D all the above. I think all but B because I never really heard of that but if you look in our history I think that happen im not sure I would wait untill you know that somone knows for sure.

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

Ignoring air resistance the time to rise will equal the time to fall and initial velocity will be the same magnitude as final velocity just before impact.

v = at

v = 9.8(3.1)

v = 30.38

v = 30 m/s

max height can be found knowing the velocity is zero at the top of its flight.

v² = u² + 2as

s = (v² - u²) / 2a

s = (0.00² - 30.38²) / (2(-9.8))

s =  47.089

s = 47 m

A stomp rocket takes 3.1 seconds to reach its maximum height then the initial velocity is given as v = 30 m/s and maximum height is 47.089 m.

Velocity is defined as rate of change of position with respect to time.

SI unit of velocity is m/sec. Velocity is a vector quantity.

Given that in the question time taken by rocket to reach maximum height is 3.1 sec. Ignoring air resistance the time to rise will equal the time to fall and initial velocity will be the same magnitude as final velocity just before impact.

v = at

v = 9.8(3.1)

v = 30.38

v = 30 m/s

Max height can be found knowing the velocity is zero at the top of its flight.

v² = u² + 2as

s = (v² - u²) / 2a

s = (0.00² - 30.38²) / (2(-9.8))

s =  47.089

s = 47 m

So, the initial velocity is given as v = 30 m/s and maximum height is 47.089 m.

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Answer:

All organisms begin their lives as single cells.Overtime,these organisms grow and take on the characteristics of their species...All organisms grow,and different parts of organisms may grow at different rates.Organisims made out of only one cell

may change little during their lives, but they do grow

Explanation:

brainlest me please

Answer:

B. . by consuming plants or other animals

Total liquid: 73 + 25 = 98 ml

Percent juice = (25/98) x 100 = 25.5 %

Answer:

The answer is ciliary body and focus the pupil. In addition, the ciliary body is a portion of the eye that contains the ciliary muscle that reins the shape of the lens and the ciliary epithelium that yields the aqueous humor. The ciliary body is a share of the uvea which is the layer of tissue that transports oxygen and nutrients to the eye nerves while the pupil is a hole positioned in the midpoint of the iris of the eye that permits light to foray the retina. It looks black since light rays incoming the pupil are moreover engrossed by the tissues in the eye openly or engrossed after diffuse reflections in the eye that typically miss leaving the fine pupil

Explanation:

Answer:the eye has many parts that must work together in order to produce clear vision

Explanation: correct on my test

Explanation:

The buoyant force [tex]F_B[/tex] is defined as

[tex]F_B = \rho_wgV[/tex]

where [tex]\rho_w[/tex] is the density of the displaced fluid (freshwater), g is the acceleration due to gravity and V is the volume of the submerged object. In the case of freshwater, its density is [tex]997\:\text{kg/m}^3.[/tex] Since the buoyant force is 20 N, we can solve for the volume of the displaced fluid:

[tex]F_B = \rho_wgV \Rightarrow V = \dfrac{F_B}{\rho_wg}[/tex]

Plugging in the values, we get

[tex]V = \dfrac{20\:\text{N}}{(997\:\text{kg/m}^3)(9.8\:\text{m/s}^2)}[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:= 2.05×10^{-3}\:\text{m}^3[/tex]

Recall that the weight of an object in terms of its density and volume is given by

[tex]W = \rho gV[/tex]

Using the value for the volume above, we can solve for the density of the object as follows:

[tex]\rho = \dfrac{W}{gV} = \dfrac{900\:\text{N}}{(9.8\:\text{m/s}^2)(2.05×10^{-3}\:\text{m}^3)}[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:= 44,798\:\text{kg/m}^3[/tex]

From Young's single slit experiment, the distance away from the wall will be 1.068 m

Given that 587.9 nm of wavelength of light passes through a single slit 0.73 mm wide, it creates a diffraction pattern.

From the question, the following parameters are given:

The wavelength of the light λ  =  587.9 nm

The width of the slit a = 0.73 mm

Fringe width X = 0.86 mm

The distance away from the wall D = ?

The fringe width is related to the wavelength  of the light source by the equation:

X = Dλ ÷ a

Substitute all the parameters into the formula

0.83 × [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] = 587.9 × [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] D ÷ 0.73 ×

Cross multiply

587.9 × [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] D = 6.278 × [tex]10^{-7}[/tex]

make D the subject of the formula

D = 6.278 × [tex]10^{-7}[/tex] ÷  587.9 × [tex]10^{-9}[/tex]

D = 1.068 m

Therefore, the distance away from the wall is 1.068 m

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If the first minimum is [tex]0.86 mm[/tex] from the central maximum, the distance away is 1.07 meters.

Given the data in the question;

From Thomas Young's single slit experiment:

[tex]\frac{a*y}{L} = m * \lambda[/tex]    

Where a is the width of the slit, y is first minimum, L is the distance, m is the order number and λ is the wavelength.

We substitute our values into the equation

[tex]\frac{0.00073m\ *\ 0.00086m}{L} = 1\ *\ ( 5.879*10^{-7}m)\\\\\frac{0.0000006278m^2}{L} = 5.879*10^{-7}m\\\\L = \frac{0.0000006278m^2}{5.879*10^{-7}m} \\\\L = 1.07m[/tex]

Therefore, if the first minimum is [tex]0.86 mm[/tex] from the central maximum, the distance away is 1.07 meters.

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Hi there!

We can use the following equation to find the frequency of each harmonic:

[tex]f_n = \frac{n}{2L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{\lambda}}[/tex]

n = nth harmonic

L = length of string (m)

T = Tension of string (N)

λ = linear density (kg/m)

Begin by converting the linear mass density to kg:

2.00g /m · 1 kg / 1000g = 0.002 kg/m

Now, we can use the equation to find the first three harmonics.

First harmonic:

[tex]f_1 = \frac{1}{2(0.6)} \sqrt{\frac{50}{0.002}} = \boxed{131.76 Hz}[/tex]

Second harmonic:

[tex]f_2 = \frac{2}{2(0.6)} \sqrt{\frac{50}{0.002}} = \boxed{263.52Hz}[/tex]

Third harmonic:

[tex]f_3 = \frac{3}{2(0.6)} \sqrt{\frac{50}{0.002}} = \boxed{395.28Hz}[/tex]

Answer:

heating prosedure takes place the opposite of condensation

Answer:

The 7 states of matter are solid, loquid, gas, fermionoc condensate, quark gluton plasm, bose einetein condensate amd ionised plasm but its usually only 3 they teach you

Answer:

7

Explanation:

solid, liquid,gas,fermionoc condensate,quark glutton plasm,bose einetein condensate amd ionised plasm.

Answer:

all are harmful to the body

Answer:

626m

Explanation:

Answer:

200 kilocalories

Explanation:

Explanation:

F = Icurrent×length×Bfieldstrength×sin(angle field to wire)

in our case

Icurrent = 10 A

length = 0.02km = 20 meters

B = 10^-6 T

angle = 30 degrees.

F = (20 A)(20m)(10^-6 T)×sin(30) = 400× 10^‐6 ×0.5 N =

= 200 × 10^-6 = 2 × 10^‐4 N

Answer:

D. Greater than mg​

Explanation:

According to Newton’s second law of motion, the net force equals mass times acceleration. We are going to use a free body diagram (force diagram) to show that the equation of the motion is given by

T – mg = – ma

Thereby,

T = mg – ma

and the answer is: (d)

D. Greater than mg​

_________________________________

(hopet his helps can I pls have brainlist  (crown)☺️)