please help me with this for a brainly plus give explaantion on how you got that answer

Answer:

4x - 7

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 2x + 3x - 2x = 4x

-8 + 1 = -7

The simplified expression is 4x -7.

A fine operation similar as deduction, addition, addition, or division is used to combine terms into an expression. In a fine expression, the following terms are used.

Given:

Expression:  x+2x –8+3x+1 –2x

Now, simplifying the expression by taking like terms along.

x+2x –8+3x+1 –2x

= x+ 2x - 2x + 3x - 8 + 1

= x(1 + 2 - 2 + 3) -7

= x( 4) -7

= 4x -7

Learn more about expression here:

https://brainly.com/question/14083225

#SPJ2

Answer:

Y Me Angry U Hungry Me And Me Angry Way Back together Me Y He Angry Me He Angry Me Angry:(

Answer:

m=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

m=y2-y1/x2-x1

m=-2-8/3-(-2)

m=-2-8/3+2

m=-10/5

m=-2

Answer: the first one is 19 and the second is 81.

y = -2/3x is the answer

What is the equation of the line that passes through the point (6,-4)( and has a slope of -2/3?

y=-2/3x

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

The 3 sides of the triangle are congruent.

The triangle is therefore equilateral with 3 congruent angles of 60° , so

∠ B = 60° → C

Answer:

0, 1/18, and 1/36

Step-by-step explanation:

For i = 2, the probability it lands on 6 is 0, because you cannot sum to 2 with a 6. The same applies to i = 3 thru i = 6.

For the probability that at least one of a pair of fair dice lands on 6 for i = 7, there are only two possible ways, the first roll is a 6 and the second roll is a 7, and the first roll is a 1 and the second roll is a 6. The total amount of ways is 6 * 6 = 36, so the total probability is 1/18. This also applies to i = 8 thru i = 11.

For i = 12, there is only one way to get 12, the first dice lands on 6 and the second dice lands on 6. Assuming the dice are indistinguishable, the probability is 1/36.

The probability that at least one of a pair of fair dice lands on 6, given that the sum of the dice is i, where i ranges from 2 to 12, is 23/12.

We have,

The complementary probability of "at least one die lands on 6" is "neither of the dice lands on 6."

Therefore, you need to find the probability that neither of the dice lands on 6 for each possible sum i, and then subtract that probability from 1 to get the desired probability.

Let's go through the cases:

i = 2 (only possible sum with two dice):

In this case, both dice must show a 1.

The probability of this happening on a fair 6-sided die is

(1/6) * (1/6) = 1/36.

i = 3: The combinations are (1, 2) and (2, 1).

The probability of either happening is 2 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/18.

i = 4:

The combinations are (1, 3), (2, 2), and (3, 1).

The probability of any of these happening is 3 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/12.

i = 5:

The combinations are (1, 4), (2, 3), (3, 2), and (4, 1).

The probability of any of these happening is 4 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/9.

i = 6:

The combinations are (1, 5), (2, 4), (3, 3), (4, 2), and (5, 1).

The probability of any of these happening is 5 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 5/36.

i = 7:

The combinations are (1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2), and (6, 1).

The probability of any of these happening is 6 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/6.

i = 8:

The combinations are (2, 6), (3, 5), (4, 4), (5, 3), and (6, 2).

The probability of any of these happening is 5 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 5/36.

i = 9:

The combinations are (3, 6), (4, 5), and (5, 4).

The probability of any of these happening is 3 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/12.

i = 10:

The combinations are (4, 6) and (6, 4).

The probability of either happening is 2 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/18.

i = 11:

The combinations are (5, 6) and (6, 5).

The probability of either happening is 2 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/18.

i = 12:

The combination is (6, 6).

The probability of this happening is (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/36.

Now, sum up the probabilities for each case:

(1/36) + (1/18) + (1/12) + (1/9) + (5/36) + (1/6) + (5/36) + (1/12) + (1/18) + (1/18) + (1/36)

This simplifies to:

69/36 = 23/12

Thus,

The probability that at least one of a pair of fair dice lands on 6, given that the sum of the dice is i, where i ranges from 2 to 12, is 23/12.

Learn more about probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/14099682

#SPJ3

The area of the triangle is 24 square units.

Hope you could get an idea from it.

Doubt clarification - use comment section.

Answer:

y = 5/3x - 7

Step-by-step explanation:

5x + 3y = -21

5x - 3y = -21

-3y = -5x - 21

-y = -5/3x + 7

y = 5/3x - 7

Kayden Kohl

8th Grade Student

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Y=5/3x -7

Answer:

6a - 28

Step-by-step explanation:

combine like terms

3a - 28 - 7a + 10a

3a - 7a + 10a = 6a

have a lovely day :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the steps are on the pic

symbolab

tiger-algebra

and

geteasysolution

aregoof for math

Answer:

382.85

Step-by-step explanation:

hours. amount

8. 80.60

38. ??

=382.85

Answer:

The rate of change is: 2

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{187-145}{2007-1986}[/tex] = 2

Answer:

x=(m)(7)(6) or x=m*7*6

Step-by-step explanation:

3x - 7 + 2x - 3 = 90

<=> 5x -10=90

<=> 5x = 100

<=> x=20

ok done. Thank to me :>

Answer:

y=6x-1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\bold{-6x + y = -1}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope form is [tex]y=mx+b[/tex]. So, convert this to a slope form:

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

-2/3*-3-3

2-3

= -1

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{E)-\frac{100}{17}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The multiplicative inverse of the fraction [tex]\frac{a}{b}[/tex]  is simply [tex]\frac{b}{a}[/tex].  The sign would not change for this reason.

Hope it helps :) and let me know if you want me to elaborate.

Answer:

accept length

accept breadth

Area=length *breadth

we multiply the length of a rectangle by the width of the rectangle.

Answer:

a. After the first bounce, the ball will be at 85% of 8 ft. After 2 bounces, it'll be at 85% of 85% of 8 feet. After 3 bounces, it'll be at (85% of) (85% of) (85% of 8 feet).  You can see where this is going. After n bounces the ball will be at

[tex]h(n) = (85\%)^n 6ft = (\frac{17}{20})^n(6ft\times 12\frac{in}{ft}) = (\frac{17}{20})^n\times72'[/tex]

b. After 8 bounces we can apply the previous formula with n = 8 to get

[tex]h(8)=(\frac{17}{20})^8\times 72' = 19.62'[/tex]

c. The solution to this point requires using exponential and logarithm equations; a more basic way would be trial and error using the previous [tex]h(n)[/tex]increasing the value of n until we find a good value. I recommend using a spreadsheet for that; the condition will lead to the following inequality:

[tex]1>(\frac{17}{20})^n\times 72[/tex] Let's first isolate the fraction by dividing by 72.

[tex](\frac{17}{20})^n<\frac1{72}[/tex]  Now, to get numbers we can plug in a calculator, let's take the natural logarithm of both sides:

[tex]ln ((\frac{17}{20})^n) < ln \frac 1{72} \rightarrow n\times ln (\frac{17}{20}) < -ln72[/tex]. Now the two quantities are known - or easy to get with any calculator, replacing them and solving for n we get:

[tex]-(0.16)n < - 4.27 \rightarrow n>26.31[/tex] Now, since n is an integer - you can't have a fraction of a bounce after all, you pick the integer right after that, or n>27.

Step-by-step explanation:

1 more time solve and answer is ready

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: (1,10)

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming these are the correctly written equations:

-x + 5y = 49, and

x - 4y = -39

I'll rewrite them:

5y = x + 49

y = (1/5)x + (49/5)

-4y = -x -39

y = (1/4)x + (39/4)

=====

I'll assume the question is to find the point these two lines intersect (?).

See the attached graph.  They intersect at (1,10).

Answer:

An even number: 1/2, A multiple of 3: 1/4, A multiple of 4: 1/4, Not a multiple of 4: 3/4, Less then 4: 3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are eight faces all you have to do is take the number that answers the question and put it over eight.

Answer:

The first, third, and fourth answers are correct!

Answer:

3and3 4and 2 5and1

Step-by-step explanation:

3 is the coordinate of 3 4is the coordinate of 3 5is the coordinate of 1

Answer:

No of sample space , n(s) = 12 + 11 + 17 + 5 = 45

No of favorable cases , n(e) = 17

Probability of getting blue marble ,

P(e) = n(e)/n(s)

       = 17 / 45

NOW

Probability of not getting blue marble,

P'(e) = 1 - p(e)

      = 1 - 17 / 45

     = ( 45 - 17)/45

    = 28 / 45

Hope it helped :)

Step-by-step explanation: