Please help with this

Answer

The third table has a gradient of 20, so third table is one of them.

The other one is the last case, For an hour, Fahim earning  $1010 so that is the rate per hour.  

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 1. Equation =3x = M , where x = money each received and M= total money received.

2.total money from bake sale=$96.57

Step-by-step explanation:

STEP 1

Let the total money receive from proceeds be = M

and let the amount of money each receive after the split  = x

Since   Jan and her two friends raised the money together, the total proceeds will be calculated using the equation

x+x+x= M

3 x = M ---- Equation

STEP 2--- Solving

if 3 x= M

and x =mount of money each receive after the split=$32.19

Therefore total money from bake sale, M = 3x = 3 x 32.19 = $96.57

Answer:

The last one

Step-by-step explanation:

$96.57

Answer:

Least Amount Likley: 7800

Favorable:8200

Step-by-step explanation:

Favorable 8000+2.5%

Least 8000-2.5% this is the range

Answer:

Least Amount Likely: 7800

Favorable: 8200

Step-by-step explanation:

Favorable: [tex]8000+2.5[/tex]% [tex]=8,200[/tex]

Least: [tex]8000-2.5%[/tex][tex]%[/tex]% [tex]=7,800[/tex] this is the range

hope this helps:)

Answer:

CGIA

Step-by-step explanation:

C is the first line, G is the second, I is the third, and A is the fourth.

I graphed it all. If I helped you, give me brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

This equation gives circumference (24900 miles). Knowing this the formula to start off finding radius is

[tex]c=2\pi r[/tex]

we know c(circumference) and we know pi(3.1415926535...)

so move the numbers to isolate r(radius) to look something like this

[tex]\frac{c}{2\pi } =r[/tex]

input the known values then solve.

[tex]\frac{24900}{2\pi } =r[/tex]

[tex]\frac{12450}{\pi } =r[/tex]

[tex]3962.95808... =r[/tex]

(round this to whatever value you are looking for)

Hope This Helps :)

Answer: it's about 46.6% for the first card the second card depends on the first card if the first card is even the likelihood of the second being even is 40%, if the first card is odd then the likelihood of the second card being odd too be about 46,6%

Answer:

1 / 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Total # of marbles in the bag = 30

Total # of blue marbles in the bag = 15

Probability of pulling a blue marble = # of blue /  total # of marbles

Probability = 15 / 30

Simplify = 1 / 2

==========================================

Work Shown:

q = (-4, 1) is one vector

r = (a,3) is another vector

The resultant vector is

q+r = (-4,1)+(a,3)

q+r = (-4+a,1+3)

q+r = (-4+a,4)

Multiply both sides by 7

7(q+r) = 7*(-4+a,4)

7(q+r) = (7*(-4+a),7*4)

7(q+r) = (-28+7a, 28)

---------------

Since 7(q+r) = (-35, 28), we know that,

(-28+7a, 28) =  (-35, 28)

which leads to

-28 + 7a = -35

when we equate the x components of each vector. Let's solve for 'a'

-28 + 7a = -35

7a = -35+28

7a = -7

a = -7/7

a = -1

--------------

Check:

q = (-4,1)

r = (a,3) = (-1,3)

q+r = (-4,1)+(-1,3)

q+r = (-4+(-1), 1+3)

q+r = (-5, 4)

7*(q+r) = 7*(-5, 4)

7*(q+r) = (7*(-5), 7*4)

7*(q+r) = (-35, 28)

The answer is confirmed.

Answer:

D. -1

Step-by-step explanation:

edge test

Answer:

where is the question????

Answer:

1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Please correct me if I'm wrong. :)

Answer:

i think its -10

Step-by-step explanation:

hope im not wrong

Answer:

I believe the answer is -6,0

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Remark

The best way to find the slope is to take the two points that are marked.

(5,3) and (0,-1)

Formula

m = (y2 - y1)/(x2 - x1)

Givens

y2 = 3

y1 = -1

x2 = 5

x1 = 0

Solution

m  = (3 - -1)/(5 - 0)

m = (3+1) / 5 = 4/5

the line parallel to the line in the graph  would be the new with a  slope equal to the given line.

The perpendicular to this line would have a slope of

m * m1 = -1

4/5 * m1 = - 1      Multiply by 5

4 * m = -5          Divide by 4

m = -5/4

A line perpendicular to the given line would have a slope of -5/4

Answer:

$1.89 for each Card.

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 1.89 because 9.45 divided by 5 is 1,89

Answer:

Is that you in your pfp?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A then D then C then F thats what I see

Step-by-step explanation:

See attachment for math work.

Answer:

The answer is D

Step-by-step explanation:

The line is going to the right side so that means that x must be greater than -53 and the dot is filled in so it is also equal to

44%

I hope this helped!!!

Answer:

ummmmmmmmm 44?

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the slope:1/3 and y intercept:2

Answer:

2 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

8-1=7

9-6=3

7/3= 2 1/3

Answer:

2.5% chance of finding a defective headset

970

Step-by-step explanation:

3% of the headsets found defective.

If 280 units of that model are tested, and the manufacturer finds 273 headsets without any defects,  

easy to find percent 273/280=0.975

multiply by 100

97.5 then get 100-97.5=2.5

2.5% chance of finding a defective headset

ok 1,000 units of empirical probability

so the good ones

1,000/100=1

10= 1 percent

10*97=970

970

Empirical probability is the probability based on past experience

Part A

Part B

The reason for arriving at the above values is as follows:

Part A

The percentage of the daily headset produced the manufacturer found defective = 3%

The number of headset tested by the manufacturer = 280 units

The number of headsets found without defect = 273 headsets

Using the formula for percentage, calculate the percentage defect

The percentage chance of finding a defect = [tex]\mathbf{\dfrac{Number \ of \ dfect }{Number \ of \ Headset} \times 100}[/tex]

Where;

dfect = defect

The percentage chance of finding a defect = [tex]\dfrac{280 - 273}{280} \times 100 = \mathbf{2.5 \%}[/tex]

The percentage chance of finding a defect = 2.5%

Part B

The theoretical model of the number of defective headset produced = The stated (description) percentage of defective headset produced = 3% defective

The given number of units tested, n(T) = 1,000 units

Calculate expected number of defects and empirical probability using formula

The expected number of defects, n(D) ≈ 3% of 1,000 = (3/100) × 1,000 = 30

The expected number of defective headset found, n(D) ≈ 30

[tex]The \ 'expected' \ empirical \ probability = P(D) \approx \mathbf{\dfrac{n(D)}{n(T)}}[/tex]

Therefore;

[tex]\mathbf{'Expected' \ empirical \ probability} = P(D) \mathbf{\approx \dfrac{30}{1,000} }= 0.03[/tex]

The expected probability of finding a defect P(D) ≈ 0.03

Learn more about empirical probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/15412351

An equation of the line that passes through the point (-2, 2) and is parallel to the line 2x+y=1 is y=2x+6.

Given that, the equation of a line is 2x+y=1 and the coordinate point is (-2, 2).

The equation of line is an algebraic form of representing the set of points, which together form a line in a coordinate system. The numerous points which together form a line in the coordinate axis are represented as a set of variables x, y to form an algebraic equation, which is referred to as an equation of a line.

In the equation of a line 2x+y=1, slope is 2.

As we know the slopes of parallel lines are equal, that is m1=m2.

Now, put (-2, 2) and m=2 in y-y1=m(x-x1) and simplify.

That is, y-2=2(x+2)

⇒ y-2=2x+4

⇒ y=2x+4+2

⇒ y=2x+6

Therefore, an equation of the line that passes through the point (-2, 2) and is parallel to the line 2x+y=1 is y=2x+6.

To learn more about an equation of the line visit:

https://brainly.com/question/14200719.

#SPJ5

Answer:

Rhombu is the answer

Answeris rhombus

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

Using any two ordered pairs, say (2, 17) and (4, 45),

Let,

[tex] (2, 17) = (x_1, y_1) [/tex]

[tex] (4, 45) = (x_2, y_2) [/tex]

Rate of change = [tex] \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1} = \frac{45 - 17}{4 - 2} [/tex]

[tex] = \frac{28}{2} [/tex]

Rate of change = 14

Answer:

3.5

Step-by-step explanation:

If you like to round 3.457 to the nearest tenth, leaving only one number after the decimal point, then you have come to the right post.

Love, gocry