Gnathostomiases The vertebrate binomial nomenclature or taxa with origin(s) involves Hox gene duplication are known as craniate.
Why does gnathostomiasis occur?Several species species parasitic worms (nematodes) of the genus Gnathostoma are responsible for human gnathostomiasis. Although it has been identified in other parts of Asia, South and Central America and also some regions of Africa, the illness is most frequently discovered and diagnosed in Southeast Asia.
Gnathostomiasis is detected in what ways?Based on clinical signs, gnathostomiasis in humans can be diagnosed. And symptoms (intermittent dermal or cutaneous migrating swelling), a raised blood eosinophil level, and a pertinent exposure history (residing in or visiting areas where the disease is endemic; consuming raw or undercooked foods fish, frog, or chicken)
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compare the air pollution of Uttar Pardesh, Arunachal Pradesh, and Meghalaya
Answer :uttar Pradesh is more polluted than any of these.
Explanation:
How do you rule a X-linked recessive pedigree?
Ruling a X-linked recessive pedigree involves analyzing the family history and pattern of inheritance of a trait or disorder to determine if it is likely to be inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern.
The disorder can be identified by:
Construct a pedigree by gathering information about the family history of the trait or disorder. Identify the pattern of inheritance by analyzing the transmission of the trait or disorder within the family. X-linked recessive disorders typically show a pattern of transmission in which affected males are only found in the direct line of descent from a female carrier. If the disorder is only found in males and not females, or if it is found mostly in males, it could be X-linked recessive.Exclude other possible modes of inheritance. Confirm the mode of inheritance by performing genetic testing. Genetic tests such as DNA sequencing or linkage analysis can be used to identify the specific genetic mutation causing the disorder in affected family members. Identify the specific gene mutation. With the help of genetic testing and linkage mapping it's possible to identify the specific gene and the mutation that causes the disorder.To know more about Pedigree analysis, click here,
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Which of the following is true concerning the anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber?
a. actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
b. certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers
c. tropomyosin
d. myofibrils contain thick and thin filaments
A protein which regulates the activity of the lactose locus is located outside the lac operator and is encroaching, a globular contractile protein, works with myosin to contract muscles.
The single cells are what?Unicellular creatures are sometimes known as single-cell organisms. In contrast to multicellular creatures, which are made up of many cells, single cell organisms were minuscule and consist of just one cell. They are capable of functioning as a single cell that is capable of sustaining life.
What are some uses for single cells?Single-cell sequencing technology may identify individual immune cells, making it possible to distinguish between distinct immune cell types and learn about the relationships between them.
This contributes to our understanding of the intricate immune system and suggests new disease-treating targets.
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A parent cell has 28 chromosomes and completes meiosis. How many chromosomes result in each cell produced
If a parent cell has 28 chromosomes then the number of chromosomes in the daughter cell produced after the cell undergoes meiosis is 14 chromosomes.
Meiosis is a cell division process for gamete production. It helps in the sexual reproduction of eukaryotes. Gametes produced from two parents will unite to form the zygote, which thus contains a combination of unique sets of chromosomes inherited from two parents.
Hence each daughter cell will have half the no of chromosomes as that of their parents. So the number of chromosomes in each of the daughter cells is 28/2 = 14 chromosomes. In meiosis 1 the number of chromosomes becomes half while in meiosis 2 , it is similar to mitosis, so the number of chromosomes remains the same.
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Check the items you included in your answer. Both living things and biotic factors can be alive. Unlike living things, biotic things may not be alive; they may have once lived or came from something living. I included an example of something both living and biotic, such as flowers. I included an example of something biotic, but not living, such as paper. I used compare-and-contrast vocabulary
You are all aware that the terms "living" and "biotic" are interchangeable since both refer to the measures of life. It includes, among other things, humans, animals, plants, and predators.
Something that is directly derived from living organisms or that is closely related to living organisms can be considered biotic. Biotic organisms may not always be alive, but they can talk for a long time. A biotic substance is one that once existed or originated from a living thing.
Products like rubber, latex, cow dung, paper, and so on are biotic products that are not living, whereas examples like plants and animals, including humans, fall under the category of living.
As a result, Biotic includes, among other things, humans, animals, plants, and predators.
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What is insertion and deletion called?
An insertion and deletion is called as a frameshift mutation .
An insertion is a point mutation in which one or more base pairs is added to a DNA sequence. Point mutations is further divided into silent mutations, missense mutations, and nonsense mutations.
Frameshift mutation is considered as a genetic mutation caused by a deletion or insertion in a DNA sequence. This kind of mutation shifts the way the sequence is read. diseases like cystic fibrosis is a result of frameshift mutation that alters the CFTR gene. The harshness of frameshift mutation is reliant on the number of nucleotides and the position of insertion of nucleotides.
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Buffalo grass is a species of plant found on the grazing prairie of Wyoming. It is a tough grass that has silicates (compounds containing oxygen and silicon) that reinforce its leaves. This variation has allowed this type of grass to survive for many years in an adverse environment. This is an example of which mechanism of evolution? O Mutation O Natural Selection O Gene Flow Genetic Drift
As the variation of tough grass that has silicates (compounds containing oxygen and silicon) that reinforce its leaves has allowed this type of grass to survive for many years in an adverse environment, this is an example of b. natural selection.
This particular type of grass has adapted over time to survive in an adverse environment, due to its silicates (compounds containing oxygen and silicon) reinforcing its leaves. This is an example of natural selection, showing how the grass has been able to survive for many years despite the difficult conditions.
The variety of grass characterized by silicates (oxygen and silicon compounds) in its leaves has enabled it to survive in difficult environments over the years. This is a prime example of natural selection at work.
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NEED ASAP!!!
explain how mutations affect genes.
Explanation:
Random mutations in genes can potentially lead to advantageous characteristics. For example, a mutation in the genetic coding of a bacterium could lead to that bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics. Mutations change the overall coding of a gene, and are normally harmless. Mutations are changes in the coding of DNA, they can lead to alterations in the polypeptide chain and so can lead to non-functional proteins.
Which of the following organelles are involved in the general category of organelle heredity?
A) mitochondria and chloroplasts
B) R factors
C) Lysosomes and peroxisomes
D) Factors and episomes
E) Golgi and rough endoplasmic reticulum
The organelle in charge of transmitting hereditary features is the nucleus. The nucleus, represented by the letter Q, is where DNA is located. Choice B seems to be the appropriate answer as a result.
What characteristic of the cell determines heredity?We now know that the genetic material of the cell is stored in the DNA. Diagram 4-2. On the other hand, the main function of cellular proteins found in chromosomes is to control and bundle extremely long DNA molecules into manageable bundles that can fit into mitochondria and just be easily accessible by them.
What organelle contains the basic components of life's genetic code?Nucleus. The DNA deoxyribonucleic protein is housed in the nucleus, which is also known as the "command center" of the cell. Every single of the cell's processes, including.
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how can the silent march best be described the silent protest
Answer:
There is no singing or chanting, just the muffled thump of drums.
Explanation:
Why do whales need oxygen?
Whales need oxygen for respiration processes because they do not have gills, and whales are unable to breathe oxygen that is dissolved in water.
The lack of gills, which prevent whales from breathing oxygen dissolved in water, is the most obvious distinction between whales and other fish. Instead, they have lungs, which means that whenever they want to breathe air, they have to come to the surface.
They can stay underwater for hours at a time because they have a very efficient respiratory system that allows their lungs to get the most out of each breath. To put things in perspective, when we are at rest, humans breathe about 12 to 20 times per minute, but they only take in 5% of the oxygen in a single breath. This is in contrast to a whale, which can absorb up to 90% of the oxygen it breathes. This indicates that a whale takes in significantly more oxygen in a single breath than a human does.
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Ligaments ere very strong but resistant to stretch Which protein fiber probably predominates?
a. Collagen b. Elastic c. Reticular d. Adipose
Ligaments are extremely strong but not stretchable. Most likely, collagen protein fiber is predominant.
Which of the aforementioned structures resists stretching?The primary structural element of connective tissue, collagens withstand tensile or stretching stresses. There are about 40 different forms of collagens, but four of them are the most prevalent.
What distinguishes the holocrine gland from the merocrine and apocrine secretions?Products are produced and then secreted by merocrine glands. Apocrine gland cells store its fluids until they rupture and discharge their contents, whereas apocrine gland cells release secretions by clamping off the apex region of the cell. In this instance, the cell joins the secretion.
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The non-poisonous ____ butterfly gains protection by looking like the bad-tasting ____ butterfly, which is a protective device known as ____.
The non-poisonous viceroy butterfly gains protection by looking like the bad tasting monarch butterfly, which is a protective device known as Mimicry.
Mimicry is a biological phenomenon that occurs by superficial resemblance of two or more organisms that are not closely related taxonomically. The resemblance gives an advantage such as protection from predation upon one or both organisms by which the organism deceive the animate agents of natural selection.The predator interacts with the similar organisms and gets deceived by their similarity.
The discovery of Mimicry in butterflies was in the mid 19th century by Victorian naturalist H.W.Bates. Mimicry in butterflies are of two types- Batesian mimicry and Mullerian mimicry.
The Batesian mimicry is when a non-poisonous animal mimics the pattern or coloration of a poisonous or unpalatable animal without actually producing any toxins themselves.
The Mullerian mimicry is when two poisonous or unpalatable animals have the same coloration and patterns.
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How many total permanent teeth should an adult have, assuming none have been lost or removed? -8 -16 -20 -32
Answer:
The correct answer is 32 teeth.
Explanation:
Hope it helped:)
In models of logistic population growth, _____. Group of answer choices new individuals are added to the population as N approaches K the population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the population's growth only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth carrying capacity is never reached
In the logistic population growth model, population growth slows dramatically as N approaches K.
There are various mathematical models that can explain population growth. In the exponential growth model, population size follows a “J” shaped curve and grows very quickly. In the logistic growth model, population size follows an “S” shaped curve, growing rapidly and then leveling off.
When the population size N is well below the carrying capacity K, the population size increases rapidly, forming the first loop in S. As N approaches K, resources are limited, population growth slows down, the curve levels off, and his second loop to form an 'S'.
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Researchers put mice who had been eating either a Low Carb or a Control diet onto treadmills at different speeds and measured heart rate. Their data are below. The R2 values for each line represent • Control O Low carb diet - Control -----Low carb
(Pict. Diagram)
o the significance of the linear fit o whether or not the slopes are significantly different from zero o the amount of variation explained by the regression line o standard deviation of the slope
Based on the research given, the answer would be C. the amount of variation explained by the regression line
This statistic displays the percentage of the variance in the dependent variable that the independent factors collectively explain. The R-squared statistic offers a simple 0–100% scale to express the degree of the relationship between your model and the dependent variable.
Variation refers to any distinction between individuals within a species or between populations of animals from different species. Genetic diversity is primarily brought about by mutation, but it is also influenced by other biological processes as sexual reproduction and gene flow. Linear regression is a linear strategy for modelling the connection between a scalar answer and one or more explanatory factors. When there is only one explanatory variable, simple linear regression is employed; when there are many explanatory factors, multiple linear regression is utilised.
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EMOTIONAL COORDINATION IS. *
1 point
THE ABILITY TO USE PERSONAL ENTHUSIASM TO IMPROVE THE EMOTIONAL STATE
OF OTHERS
THE ABILITY TO QUICKLY REGULATE AN EMOTIONAL RESPONSE WHEN FACED WITH
A VARIETY OF IMMEDIATE SOCIAL AND EMOTIONAL CHALLENGES
THE ABILITY TO APPLY THE ENERGY CREATED FROM AN EMOTIONAL RESPONSE (IE:
ANGER, SADNESS, FRUSTRATION, ETC. ) IN A POSITIVE AND CONSTRUCTIVE WAY
THE ABILITY TO RESPOND POSITIVELY AND OPTIMISTICALLY IN A VARIETY OF
SOCIAL AND EMOTIONAL SITUATIONS, AND TO REGAIN OPTIMISM WHEN NEGATIVE
EVENTS OCCUR
THE ABILITY TO EMPATHIZE WITH OTHERS AND RESPOND APPROPRIATELY AND
PRODUCTIVELY TO PROVIDE SOCIAL AND EMOTIONAL SUPPORT
THE ABILITY TO STABILIZE THE EMOTIONAL RESPONSE TO A POTENTIALLY
UNSTABLE SOCIAL AND EMOTIONAL SITUATION
The ability to use personal enthusiasm to improve the emotional state of others is called empathy.
The term "empathy" refers to a wide concept that describes one's cognitive and emotional responses to another person's perceived experiences. The possibility of assisting others and displaying compassion rises when one has empathy. Therefore, empathy is the capacity to use one's own excitement to enhance the emotional well-being of others.
It is not required to have the same experiences or situations as others in order to feel and show empathy. Instead, empathy is an effort to comprehend the other person more fully by learning about their point of view. Emotional intelligence is the ability to understand, manage, and control your own emotions in order to reduce stress, communicate properly, empathize with others, conquer challenges, and resolve conflict (EQ).
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what organelle is the colored green and located on the outside of the plant cell?
Answer: Chloroplast
Explanation:
in what tissues, cells and organ does ependymoma first start
It begins in the spinal cord or brain
what is a consumer that hunts and gathers food
In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to the second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized below. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria. Plates that have only ampicillin resistant bacteria include which of the following?
a. I only
b. III only
c. IV only
d. I and II
Option A, The plasmid containing the amp gene was added to the first sample of E. coli, but not to the second sample. Therefore, only the first sample should contain bacteria that are resistant to ampicillin.
This is represented by the shaded area on the plate I, which indicates extensive growth of bacteria. Plates II, III, and IV do not have any shaded area, meaning that there is no extensive growth, and only dots representing individual colonies of bacteria.
Since the plasmid was not added to the second sample it does not have resistance to the antibiotic. This means that plates III and IV, which contain the antibiotic, will not have any ampicillin-resistant bacteria and thus the answer is a. I only.
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Suppose that each fatty acid in a certain fat can make 9 molecules of acetyl CoA. Predict how many ATP can be made from the fatty acids in this fat
The number of ATP yielded through fat metabolism which makes 9 molecules of acetyl CoA is 108 ATP.
How many ATP produced on beta-oxidation?The process of metabolic reactions which convert fatty acids to acetyl CoA is called beta-oxidation. Through multiple steps in beta-oxidation, fatty acids are broken down to produce energy (ATP). Before producing the energy, fatty acids which are made up of carbons must be converted into acetyl CoA in advance.
If 9 molecules of acetyl CoA are produced, it indicates that the fatty acid has 18-Carbons. In other words, each acetyl CoA contains two carbon atoms.
Each acetyl CoA that has been produced, will enter into the citric acid cycle or known as Kreb’s cycle. This cycle yields 3 NADH (9 ATP), [tex]FADH_{2}[/tex] (2 ATP), and 1 ATP. The total ATP result is 12 ATP.
when there are 9 molecules of acetyl CoA, the ATP yielded is 9 x 12 ATP = 108 ATP.
Thus, if each fatty acid in a certain fat can make 9 molecules of acetyl CoA, the amount of ATP that can be made is 108 ATP.
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What are the four main causes of mutations?
Mutations are brought on by environmental factors, often known as mutagens. Mutagens include things like radiation, chemicals, and pathogenic agents. Mutations can happen spontaneously in nature.
An organism's phenotype, or outward traits, may or may not be affected by a mutation. Among the good and bad biological processes that mutations participate in include evolution, cancer, and the maturation of the immune system, including junctional variation. All genetic diversity is the outcome of mutation, which also justifies the actions of evolutionary processes like natural selection. For an adaptive immune response to be successful, antigen-presenting cells (APCs), which are necessary for the smooth operation of both cytotoxic and helper T cells, must be present.
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What part of the brain is the "boss" of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
A) thalamus
B) pons
C) basal nuclei
D) hypothalamus
The "boss" of the autonomic nervous system is located in the hypothalamus of the brain (ANS).
What roles does the thalamus play?The thalamus is your body's central nervous system. Except for the sense of smell, the thalamus is in charge of processing all bodily sensory information before it is sent to the cerebral cortex in the brain for interpretation. The thalamus also plays a role in awareness, memory, learning, attention, and sleep.
How many nuclei does the thalamus contain?There are around 60 nuclei, or parts, in the thalamus. [1] Each nucleus contains unique pathways for input and a range of output projections, most of which connect to the cerebral cortex.
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This is English can I still get help!
Answer: I believe the order of answers should be 2, 3, 4.
Explanation:
Part A seems like it is describing a strange character. Part B is appearing to depict a mysterious event. Part C describes a positive interaction.
(If this is wrong, I am terribly sorry, but I do hope this helps!)
The correct аspect of аn Аmericаn myth:
1. Rip now felt а vаgue аpprehension steаling over him; he looked аnxiously in the sаme direction, аnd perceived а strаnge figure slowly toiling up the rocks, аnd bending under the weight of something he cаrried on his bаck. ⇒ Remarkable, strange, or exaggerated characters (2) and positive message about a nation and its people (4)
2. Her deck once red with heroes’ blood. Where knelt the vаnquished foe. When winds were hurrying o’er the flood. Аnd wаves were white below. ⇒ Set in the past, often remote areas and exiting times (1)
3. Thanks, thаnks to thee, my worthy friend, for the lesson thou hаst tаught! Thus аt the flаming forge of life, our fortunes must be wrought: thus on its sounding ⇒ Incredible, heroic, impressive, magical or mysterious events (3)
The story "Rip Vаn Winkle" is а greаt exаmple of Аmericаn Mythology becаuse of the remаrkаble chаrаcters, the incredible аnd unbelievаble events thаt occur, аnd the fаct thаt it gives hope аnd presents positive messаges аbout Аmericа through the long journey Rip tаkes in the story.
The poem titled 'Old Ironsides' penned by Oliver Wendell Holmes explores the theme of 'pride in bаttle аnd deаth.' The speаker feels proud of receiving аn honorаble deаth. The poem is centered аround а ship thаt served in numerous bаttles but still doomed to be discаrded.
The quote from "Longfellow’s Blacksmith" tells about the Blаcksmith understаnds thаt he cаn forge his own future, by аny method he deems fit. А life worth living will require thousаnds of hаmmer swings, but he is in full control of how thаt hаmmer is swung.
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What was the most significant conclusion that Mendel?
The most significant conclusion that Mendel drew from his experiments is that 'Traits are inherited in discrete units one from each parent'.
The main conclusion that Mendel drew from his experiments is that traits are inherited from each parent in his individual units and are not the result of interbreeding. He called these separate substantive factors pairs.
Mendel's main conclusion, drawn from his experiments with peas, is that factors are inherited as discrete units and do not exhibit mixing.
The peas he used in his experiments were a good choice because of their distinct contrasting traits, hermaphrodite flowers, short lifespan, and less variation in results with crosses.All monohybrid and dihybrid crosses he considered phenotypic and genotypic ratios were identical.
Genes are now discovered to be pieces of DNA that reside on chromosomes, but Mendel did not know which genes (Mendelian factors) consisted. A study of chromosome behavior was carried out by Sutton and Boveri with the aid of a microscope. They later compared it to the behavior of factors and genes.
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Complete question :
What was the most significant conclusion that Mendel drew from his experiments?
A There is considerable genetic variation in garden pea
B Traits are inherited in discrete units one from each parent
C Genes are composed of DNA
D Recessive genes occur as frequently as dominant ones.
Ji wants to write an example of a frameshift mutation using the following sentence: THE CAT SAW THE RAT. Which sentence best shows a frameshift mutation?
THC ATS AWT HER AT.
CAT THE SAW RAT THE.
EHT TAC WAS EHT TAR.
THE THE CAT SAW THE RAT
The frameshift mutation is THC ATS AWT HER AT. So, the correct option is (A).
What is Frameshift mutation?A frameshift mutation is defined as a mutation that can occur in a DNA sequence which is considered a frameshift, because it changes the frame of the sequence, changing the way it will be processed.
There are three causes which can cause frameshift mutations:
InsertionDeletionDuplicationFor the example above, the letter "E" was removed from our original sentence which is an example of a deletion which can be seen as a frameshift mutation because by removing a letter which makes the sentence and completely alters our ability to process. ,
Thus, the frameshift mutation is THC ATS AWT HER AT. So, the correct option is (A).
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How do we know whether or not a heteromorphic chromosome such as the Y chromosome plays a crucial role in the determination of sex
The Y chromosome contains the "male determining gene," the SRY gene. This gene causes testicles to form in the embryo and results in the development of male genitalia. The SRY gene is important in sex determination in mammals and some insects.
Chromosomes are part of the structure of the human body, which consists of DNA and other molecules, and is the place where genetic material is stored.
To determine sex, the so-called X and Y chromosomes. If the embryo's chromosomes are XX, then it is female. Conversely, if the XY chromosome then the fetus will be born as a boy
Sex chromosomes are usually heteromorphic, that is, they show differences (size, shape, or reaction to staining) between their homologous chromosomes. Individuals having heteromorphic sex chromosomes can produce two types of gametes. For example, human males can produce gametes that have 22+X or 22+Y chromosomes.
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How will the positive and negative transcription factor help maintain the homeostasis of the body system. Explain with an example
The positive transcription factor will help in maintaining the stimulus for homeostasis or even accelerate it. Whereas the negative transcription factor will oppose the effect of the stimulus, it can either increase it or decrease it.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a steady and equilibrated physical, chemical and internal state of the body. The example of positive transcription factor is: activation of one clotting factor in the body initiates a cascade for the activation of all the other clotting factors.
Negative transcription factor has the example of blood glucose levels of the body. If the level increase transcription factors cause the release of insulin from the pancreatic cells to maintain the homeostasis.
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Which of the following best describes the addition of nucleotides to a growing DNA chain? A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 5' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate. A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 3' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate. A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 3' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate. Co A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 5' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate. Moving to another question will save this response
Correct statement which best descibes the addition of nucleotide is a) a nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 5' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate.So,correct option is a.
A nucleoside triphosphate is a nucleotide containing a nitrogenous base bound to a 5-carbon sugar (either ribose or deoxyribose), with three phosphate bunches bound to the sugar. They are the sub-atomic antecedents of both DNA and RNA, which are chains of nucleotides made through the cycles of DNA replication and transcription. Nucleoside triphosphates likewise act as a wellspring of energy for cell reactions and are associated with flagging pathways.
Nucleoside triphosphates can't be consumed well, so they are regularly orchestrated inside the cell. Blend pathways contrast contingent upon the particular nucleotide triphosphate being made, yet given the numerous significant jobs of nucleoside triphosphates, union is firmly directed in all cases. Nucleoside analogs may likewise be utilized to treat viral infections. For instance, azidothymidine (AZT) is a nucleoside simple used to forestall and treat HIV/Helps.
Hence,correct statement is given in option a.
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(Complete question) is:
Which of the following best describes the addition of nucleosides to a growing DNA chain?
a)A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 5' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate.
b)A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 3' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate.
c)A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 3' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate.
d)A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 5' end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate. Moving to another question will save this response