Area of Concentration Heart disease deaths in the United States have decreased dramatically over the last 50 years, from over 589 age-adjusted deaths per 100,000 people in 1950 to less than half that number in 2000.
What is heart disease ?Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the United States for people of most racial and ethnic groups, including African Americans, American Indians, Alaska Natives, Hispanics, and white men. Heart disease is the second leading cause of death in Pacific Islander women, as well as Asian American, American Indian, Alaska Native, and Hispanic women.
Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the United States for men, women, and people of most racial and ethnic groups. In the United States, one person dies from cardiovascular disease every 34 seconds. In 2020, approximately 697,000 people in the United States died from heart disease, accounting for one out of every five deaths.
From 2017 to 2018, the United States spent approximately $229 billion on heart disease. This includes the cost of health-care services, medications, and lost productivity as a result of death.
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the nurse wishes to delegate the task of assisting a client who had a stroke 4 days ago with meals. which staff member who be best to assign this task to? group of answer choices lpn/lvn uap occupational therapist family member
Among physical therapist family members, UAP - unlicensed assistive personnel is the member of staff who is most qualified for this position.
The UAP's area of practice is most appropriately suited to helping clients with ADLs like eating.
Focus: Assignment, supervision, and delegation.
Despite their nomenclature, UAPs are nursing assistants that are capable of doing intervention strategies that have been assigned but are being monitored by a nurse.
Unlicensed individuals who have received training to assist a licensed nurse in doing activities for patients or clients are referred to as "unlicensed assistive personnel" (UAP) by the American Nurses Association (ANA).
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when personal and health problems related to alcohol use have become severe and a person suffers withdrawal symptoms if they don't drink, they have reached the point of alcoholism or group of answer choices tolerance. binge drinking. inebriation. alcohol dependence.
when personal and health problems related to alcohol use have become severe and a person suffers withdrawal symptoms if they don't drink, they have reached the point of alcoholism or alcohol dependence.
Individual in alcohol dependence is individual is physically or psychologically dependent upon alcohol.
The individual regular, heavy drinking habits can result in alcohol dependence and alcoholism.
An alcohol dependence person shows,
1. He keeps drinking alcohol regularly and aimlessly.
2. Develop a tolerance for alcohol.
3. There is withdrawal symptoms if one does not drink it.
4. Craving alcohol day and night and no managing time.
5. Spend less time doing more important things
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A client had a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). What medication will the nurse administer to prevent thrombus formation in the stent?
A. Diltiazem
B. Isosorbide mononitrate
C. Clopidogrel
D. Metoprolol
The nurse will administer Diltiazem to prevent thrombus formation in the stent after a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA).
Diltiazem is used to lower high blood pressure and prevent thrombus. Diltiazem is given to people with high blood pressure avoid heart disease, heart attacks, and strokes in the future. Diltiazem is used to prevent angina. A calcium channel blocker called diltiazem is used to treat hypertension and control chronic stable angina. A derivative of benzothiazepine having antihypertensive and vasodilating effects is diltiazem.
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The following are all tips for mindful eating EXCEPT... A. Enjoy the aroma, taste, and texture of your meals. B. Eat at the table. C. Finish all of the food
Answer:
eating all the food
Explanation:
a young woman comes to the ed with lower abdominal pain on the right side and has been spotting blood for 2 days. she is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy, which is an obstetric emergency. an ectopic pregnancy is when what occurs?
The egg never leaves the fallopian tube
What is fallopian tube?One of the two lengthy, thin tubes that join the ovaries and uterus. The fallopian tubes carry eggs from the ovaries to the uterus. On either side of the uterus are an ovary and a fallopian tube in the female reproductive system.When the egg never leaves the fallopian tube, ectopic pregnancy results. Blood spots and lower abdomen pain on one side are symptoms of this potentially fatal illness. An obstetric emergency necessitating hospitalization and pregnancy termination in order to save the mother's life is confirmed ectopic pregnancy. The alternative choices serve to dilute the question.The most frequent type of ectopic pregnancy, known as a tubal pregnancy, occurs when a fertilized egg becomes impaled on something while traveling to the uterus.To learn more about fallopian tube refer to:
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the nurse in a hospital skilled nursing unit witnesses a client's spouse vigorously shaking the elderly client who has dementia after the client has had an episode of incontinence. after discussing concerns with the nurse manager, to whom wuld the nurse report this observation?
After discussing concerns with the nurse manager, the person that the nurse can report this observation to will be the adult protective services.
What is the adult protective services?Adult Protective Services personnel investigate reports of abuse, neglect (including self-neglect), or financial exploitation of vulnerable adults. APS is in charge of investigating abuse, neglect, and exploitation of elderly or disabled adults.
The protective service personnel assess the need for protective services and provide services to reduce the adult's identified risk. Adult Protective Services (APS) exists to help vulnerable adults.
In this case, since the nurse in a hospital skilled nursing unit witnesses a client's spouse vigorously shaking the elderly client who has dementia, it's important to make the report.
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a client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (ptca) immediately following confirmed diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. the client is overtly anxious and crying. which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
For a client who is extremely anxious and crying and is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCS) immediately following a confirmed diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction, the appropriate response by the nurse should be "Tell me what concerns you most."
Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), is a minimally invasive procedure that opens blocked coronary arteries to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. First, a local anesthetic is used to numb the groin area. The doctor then inserts a needle into the femoral artery, which runs down the leg.
Acute myocardial infarction is myocardial necrosis caused by an acute blockage of a coronary artery. Symptoms include chest discomfort, nausea, and/or diaphoresis, with or without dyspnea. Electrocardiography (ECG) and the presence or absence of serologic markers are used to make the diagnosis.
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which irrigation technique is best? pour the saline directly onto the wound from the bottle. moisten a sterile gauze pad and pat the gauze over the wound. irrigate as gently as possible using a 60-ml bulb syringe. apply steady pressure using a 35 ml syringe and 19-gauge needle.
The best irrigation technique is, Using a 35-ml syringe and 19-gauge needle provides 8 pounds per square inch (PSI). The irrigation used here is wound irrigation,
Wound irrigation is easy to perform, quick, inexpensive and effective.
Normal saline is the most frequently used irritant, as it is proved tap water cures it fast and is an cost effective way.
It should be irrigated as slowly as possible using a large syringe.
It is adequate pressure to ensure effective irrigation.
It is always advised to use irrigation pressure between 4 and 15 psi.
If we apply too much pressure it can actually force surface bacteria into the wound bed.
If we apply too low pressure it will fail to remove surface bacteria it may lead to wound infection.
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a child with growth hormone deficiency is prescribed growth hormone (gh) by subcutaneous injection. when teaching the child's parents about this drug, the nurse would instruct the parents to administer the drug at which frequency?
Subcutaneous (sub-Q-TAIN-ee-us) injections are used to administer GH, which indicates that the substance enters the fatty tissue immediately below the skin's surface.
What to expect with Growth Hormone Treatment?Growth is primarily what to anticipate. The important thing is that your child will grow — probably 1 to 2 inches within the first 6 months of starting treatment. It takes about 3 to 6 months to notice any height differences, but this is not the most important thing. You might also notice the following things:Your child's shoes might become quickly unfit. You may need to buy new shoes more frequently if your feet grow within 6 to 8 weeks.Your child might desire more food. An improvement in appetite is typical, particularly if the patient had a poor appetite prior to treatment.Once height growth begins, your child might appear thinner for a while. With GH therapy, an increase in lean body mass and a decrease in fat mass are frequent outcomes.You should be informed that GH treatment is frequently a lengthy commitment since it may take your child a number of years to attain his or her adult height. Regular appointments with the pediatric endocrinologist, as well as infrequent x-rays and blood tests, will be required to track your child's treatment success. Although the course of treatment can vary, your kid will likely need to continue receiving GH until he or she has:Entire mature height was attainedComplete bone maturityLess than 2 cm in recent growth.To Learn more About Growth Hormone Treatment Refer To:
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a client comes to see the cardiologist for a routine follow-up visit. at the visit, the nurse reviews the client's electronic health record. the nurse is able to access a report from the client's last visit to the primary care provider last month and the report from an emergency department visit two weeks ago for reports of shortness of breath. the record also lists two changes in the client's medication based on the emergency department visit. the nurse's ability to access this information reflects which concept?
Interoperability is that process which is reflects in nurse's ability, the nurse is able to access a report from the client's last visit to the primary care provider last month and the report from an emergency department visit two weeks ago for reports of shortness of breath. the record also lists two changes in the client's medication based on the emergency department visit
What is Interoperability?
Interoperability is the quality that makes it possible for different systems to freely share and utilise resources through local area networks (LANs) or wide area networks (WANs). There are two types of data interoperability: semantic interoperability, which is the capacity of computer systems to exchange meaningful data with unambiguous, shared meaning, and syntactic interoperability, which enables various software components to cooperate and is a prerequisite for semantic interoperability.
One of the most important aspects of networked computerised systems, notably interoperability in healthcare information and management systems, is efficient automated data sharing between applications, databases, and other computer systems.
We could define interoperability as the ability of two or more information systems, or components, to let information to be shared and used across systems. The synchronisation of all components will be more than assured as a result.
Since it tries to address well-known demands like: redundant information across different sectors, lack of cohesiveness between distinct sections, existence of many information systems that operate independently, interoperability is a component of substantial importance to private firms. Control and effectiveness in an organisation are completely absent when all of this occurs.
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a nurse is teaching a client about a circumcision. which external reproductive structure is removed by circumcision?
The external reproductive structure that is surgically removed during circumcision is the foreskin; the tissue that covers the glans.
What is circumcision and its benefits?This procedure is fairly common in newborns in certain parts of the world, including the United States. Circumcision after the neonatal period is possible, but is a more complicated procedure. Some families choose circumcision because of their cultural or religious beliefs. Juvenile circumcision is a very common procedure.Potential medical benefits of circumcision include: low risk of HIV, slightly lower risk of other sexually transmitted infections, slightly lower risk of urinary tract infections and penile cancer.Does Circumcision affect Pleasure?Morris' systematic review of early his MC conducted in Australia in a total of 40,473 men found that medical circumcision (MC) had no adverse effects on sexual function, sensitivity, or pleasure.
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a client is instructed to follow a low-fat diet after an inflammatory attack of the gallbladder. which vitamins or other acids will the nurse recommend the client supplement due to the client's dietary restrictions? select all that apply.
The nurse recommend the client supplement due to the client's dietary restrictions A,D,K, Essential fatty acids-Need fat soluble vitamins; folic acid is not fat soluble.
What is low fat diet?A low fat diet limits fat and often saturated fat and cholesterol. A low-fat diet is designed to reduce the incidence of diseases such as heart disease and obesity.
People lost weight on both diets, but only the low-fat diet significantly reduced body fat. the main reasons for choosing a low-fat diet are usually to reduce calories and improve cholesterol. To achieve these goals, a low-fat diet should be properly balanced to include a healthy amount of vitamins and minerals.
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a client who is taking supplements reports severe flushing and itching an hour after ingestion. the nurse is aware that the supplement is most likely:
A client who is taking supplements reports severe flushing and itching an hour after ingestion. The nurse is aware that the supplement is most likely niacin.
Flushing is the sudden and extreme reddening of the skin. This usually happens in the skin of the face, neck, or upper chest. The redness is the result of increased blood flow into that region. The redness appears as patches or blotchiness.
Niacin is the name for vitamin B3. It is naturally present in foods like milk, meat, tortillas, cereal grains, etc. It is also taken from external supplements. The supplements can sometimes cause allergic reactions in some people.
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a nurse is caring for a preterm newborn born at 29 weeks' gestation. which nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority?
The nursing diagnosis that would have the highest priority would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.
What is preterm newborn?Preterm newborn is defined as the infant that is delivered before 37 weeks of gestation. That is a baby that arrived earlier than full term baby which should be 40 weeks of gestation.
Nursing diagnosis is been drafted and carried out by a well professionally trained registered nurse and this should be done based on the order of priority.
A preterm baby has most of its organs and systems under developed and this makes it difficult to regulate the internal environment of the body to adapt to the ever changing environment.
Therefore, the most important nursing diagnosis would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.
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the nurse in charge of a nursing unit is asked to select the hospitalized clients who can be discharged so that hospital beds can be made available for victims of a community disaster. which clients can be safely discharged? select all that apply.
the nurse in charge who is asked to select the hospitalized clients who can be discharged so that hospital beds can be made available for victims of a community disaster selects the clients to be safely discharged when :
A client is with a Holter monitorA client is receiving oral antibioticsA client is experiencing sinus rhythmIf clients are discharged, they should be medically stable and able to manage their condition at home. A client experiencing chest pain may be suffering from a myocardial infarction and requires close monitoring. To stabilize a client who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation, medication and monitoring are required. A third-degree heart block patient is considered unstable, especially if the patient requires a pacemaker.
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which diagnostic test should the nurse request an order for to determine if the client is developing drug toxicity?
Peak and trough tests should be ordered to determine if the client is developing drug toxicity.
Peak and trough levels—peak denoting the greatest and trough denoting the lowest—indicate how much medicine the patient has in their circulation. The following dose should be skipped, and the blood level should be examined again six hours later if the trough exceeds the drug's permissible limit.
There are different types of tests, such as:
Before antibiotic treatment, use culture and sensitivity to identify the microorganisms present and the most appropriate antibiotic.
The therapeutic index is the range between a medication's therapeutic and toxic doses.
Half-life: connected to dosage of medicine.
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Question 1 Which term describes the situation when 3 to 4 cm of the fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening? O Crowning Tidaling Caput succedaneum Coronal presentation
The term that describes when 3-4 cm of fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening is Crowning, option 1.
What does crowning of the fetus mean?This process occurs during the second stage of labor after complete dilation is achieved and the woman is ready to push. Crowning is when the crown or top of the baby's head is visible through the vulva.
When the fetal head is seen up to 3 to 4cm, the mother is encouraged to push to 3 to 5 times with every contraction to avoid complications. With the next set of contractions the baby comes out.
The complete question:
Question 1 Which term describes the situation when 3 to 4 cm of the fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening?
1. Crowning
2. Tidaling
3. Caput succedaneum
4. Coronal presentation
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the nurse is making a follow-up home visit to a woman who is 12 days postpartum. which finding would the nurse expect when assessing the client's fundus?
The nurse is preparing to assess a client who is 1 day postpartum. the nurse predicts the client's fundus will be located 1 cm below the umbilicus on assessment.
What is postpartum?The term postpartum wealth moment of truth following in position or time parturition. Most women catch “postnatal depression,” or feel dismal or empty, inside any day of creation. Postpartum, hormones (estrogen and progesterone) in your body concede the possibility of influence of postpartum depression.
For many women, postpartum depression departs in 3 to 5 days. If your postpartum depression forbiddance departs or you feel depressed, hopeless, or empty for lengthier than 2 weeks, you concede the possibility have postnatal depression.
Therefore, The nurse is preparing to assess a client who is 1 day postpartum. the nurse predicts the client's fundus will be located 1 cm below the umbilicus on assessment.
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A patient weighing 40 lb has an order for phenobarbital 60 mg twice daily. The safe dose
range is 3 to 6 mg/kg/day. Is this order safe?
A patient weighing 40 lb has an order for phenobarbital 60 mg twice daily. The safe dose range is 3 to 6 mg/kg/day.
What is phenobarbital?
Phenobarbital is a barbiturate and anticonvulsant with a lengthy half-life that is used to treat all forms of seizures except absent seizures.
Phenobarbital, the longest-acting barbiturate, is utilised in the treatment of all seizure disorders except absence seizures due to its anticonvulsant and sedative-hypnotic effects (petit mal).
Phenobarbital inhibits synaptic transmission by acting on GABAA receptors. This raises the seizure threshold and reduces the spread of seizure activity from a seizure focal. Phenobarbital may also inhibit calcium channels, causing excitatory transmitter release to diminish. Phenobarbital's sedative-hypnotic effects are most likely due to its action on polysynaptic midbrain reticular formation, which regulates CNS alertness.
Phenobarbital is in the barbiturates class of medicines. It is used to treat insomnia (difficulty sleeping) and as a sedative to reduce anxiety or tension symptoms. It is also used to treat certain forms of seizures. It functions by slowing the brain and nerve system.
In addition, phenobarbital is utilised to lower bilirubin levels in newborn newborns. Bilirubin is a chemical that the body produces and the liver eliminates. A newborn baby's liver may require some time to begin functioning properly.
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which measures are used by the nurse to confirm the correct placement of a nasogastric feeding tube? select all that apply.
The nurse takes measurements of the nasogastric feeding tube's length, the pH of the aspirated contents and monitor carbon dioxide levels to ensure that it is properly positioned (option b, option c and option e).
A nasogastric tube (NG tube) is a unique tube that travels through the nose to the stomach to deliver food and medications. It can be used to all feedings or to provide an individual with more calories.
One should create a daily routine for these tasks after your nurse instructs you on how to flush the tube and care for the skin around your nose. Flushing the tube aids in the release of any formula that may have become lodged inside. After each feeding, or as often as your nurse advises, flush the tube. After each feeding, wash the skin around the tube with warm water and a fresh washcloth. Also, you should clear up any nasal crust or secretions.
All doctors should be able to assess the location of nasogastric (NG) tubes because undetected mispositioning can have fatal results. A properly positioned nasogastric tube should cross the diaphragm in the middle, descend in the midline, follow the course of the oesophagus while avoiding the curves of the bronchi, visibly bisect the carina or bronchi, and have its tip visible below the left hemidiaphragm.
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Complete question:
Which measures are used by the nurse to confirm the correct placement of a nasogastric feeding tube? Select all that apply.
a) Auscultating injected air
b) Measuring tube length
c) Measuring the pH level of aspirated contents
d) Instilling fluid into the tube
e) Monitoring carbon dioxide levels
Describe 2 of the 3 principles of good observation
in 2000, evita used a dietary supplement that her body converted to testosterone once it was absorbed. what was she taking? human growth hormone androstenedione creatine hydrocortisone
Androstenedione is a steroid hormone that is primarily made by the ovaries and adrenal glands in women and the testes in men. It is essential for the creation of both estrogen and testosterone.
In order to specifically raise testosterone levels, androstenedione is also available as an oral supplement. This vitamin, which athletes simply call "andro," is frequently promoted as a natural substitute for anabolic steroids. Androstenedione is thought to enhance sexual function and performance, muscle mass, energy, and athletic performance by raising testosterone levels.
Androstenedione was the top supplement in the bodybuilding industry in the 1990s. However, it is currently prohibited by the International Olympic Committee and the World Anti-Doping Agency as a performance-enhancing drug (PED). It was categorized as a Schedule III controlled substance in 2004 and is now prohibited by the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA), the U.S. Army, and other organizations.
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a nurse is describing the risks associated with post-term pregnancies as part of an inservice presentation. the nurse determines that more teaching is needed when the group identifies which factor as an underlying reason for problems in the fetus?
The risks associated with post-term pregnancies as part of an inservice presentation identifies increased amniotic fluid volume as an underlying reason for problems in the fetus.
It's not always clear why too much fluid accumulates during pregnancy, but it can be caused by a twin or multiple pregnancy. Diabetes in the mother, including pregnancy-related diabetes (gestational diabetes) a blockage in the baby's digestive tract (gut atresia)
Polyhydramnios is an overabundance of amniotic fluid, which surrounds the fetus in the uterus during pregnancy. Polyhydramnios affects 1 to 2% of all pregnancies.
The majority of polyhydramnios cases are mild and are caused by a gradual buildup of amniotic fluid during the second half of pregnancy. Severe polyhydramnios can cause shortness of breath, premature labor, and other symptoms.
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a client has been told that stimulation of their chemoreceptor trigger zone (ctz) is responsible for their current symptoms. what nursing action indicates that the nurse is aware of the role of the ctz?
A client has been told that stimulation of their chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) is responsible for their current symptoms and it's role is planning care to manage the client's nausea and vomiting.
The CTZ is stirred by endogenous unhealthful substances created in acute infectious diseases or metabolic disorders like azotaemia and diabetic diabetic acidosis and by medicine and different exogenous toxins. It's conjointly known as the realm postrema. Once the CTZ is stirred, vomiting might occur.
Nausea is feeling associated urge to vomit. t's usually known as "being sick to your abdomen." Vomiting or throwing-up is forcing the contents of the abdomen up through the food pipe (esophagus) and out of the mouth.
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a nurse is teaching a client and the client's family about chronic pancreatitis. which are the major causes of chronic pancreatitis?
Answer:
Elevated triglyceride levels in the patient's blood.
a hospitalized client has been diagnosed with heart failure as a complication of hypertension. in explaining the disease process to the client, the nurse identifies which chamber of the heart as primarily responsible for the symptoms?
Left ventricle chamber of the heart as primarily responsible for the symptoms
What causes heart failure?Heart failure, also known as congestive heart failure, is a chronic illness that deteriorates over time. Heart failure, despite the name suggesting otherwise, is the inability of the heart to pump blood as effectively as it should. Your organs may suffer harm when your heart's pumping capacity is reduced, and fluid may build up in your lungs.Many medical conditions that damage the heart muscle can cause heart failure. Common conditions include:Coronary artery disease.Heart attack.Cardiomyopathy.Heart issues present at birth (congenital heart disease).Diabetes.High blood pressure (hypertension). This is a common cause in people assigned female at birth.Arrhythmia (abnormal heart rhythms, including atrial fibrillation).Kidney disease.Having obesity.Tobacco and recreational drug use.Medications. Some drugs used to fight cancer (chemotherapy) can lead to heart failure.Because the left ventricle must pump the stroke volume against greater resistance (after load) in the main blood arteries, hypertension increases the left ventricle's effort. This eventually results in the left ventricle failing, which produces heart failure signs and symptoms. Although these chambers may be impacted as the disease progresses and becomes more chronic, the other alternatives are not the chambers that are principally responsible for this disease process.To learn more about hypertension, refer to
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all of the following occur during inflammation. what is the first step? all of the following occur during inflammation. what is the first step? diapedesis phagocyte migration repair margination vasodilation
Of the items, the first step that occurs during inflammation is vasodilation.
How does the inflammatory response work?The inflammatory response is part of the innate immune response and, therefore, it is not a specific response, but occurs in a standardized way regardless of the stimulus. The inflammatory process involves various cells of the immune system, molecular mediators and blood vessels.
How is the inflammatory response manifested?The inflammatory leads the body to produce five classic signs: heat, flushing (redness), tumor (swelling, edema), pain and loss of function. Heat and redness are caused by the dilation of the vessels and the increase in local blood flow leads to the reddish coloration.
How do leukocytes act during the inflammatory response?Due to inflammation, after the margination process, both endothelial cells and circulating leukocytes are activated by circulating inflammatory substances.
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which topic is most important for the nurse to discuss preoperatively with a patient who is scheduled for abdominal surgery for an open cholecystectomy?
The most important topic to be discussed preoperatively with the patient scheduled for abdominal surgery for an open cholecystectomy is: (2) Deep breathing and coughing.
Cholecystectomy is the operational removal of the gall bladder. Gall bladder is the organ present below the liver that stores and secretes the bile juices. Although commonly performed, the surgery is still a major one as it may sometimes lead to other infections and conditions.
Teaching about deep breathing and coughing is essential preoperatively to the patients undergoing abdominal surgery so as to prevent postoperative atelectasis. Atelectasis is the condition where the lungs may complete collapse.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Which topic is most important for the nurse to discuss preoperatively with a patient who is scheduled for abdominal surgery for an open cholecystectomy?
Care for the surgical incisionDeep breathing and coughingOral antibiotic therapy after dischargeMedications to be used during surgeryTo know more about cholecystectomy, here
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which process can reduce expensive redundant tests that are ordered because one provider does not have access to the clinical information stored at another provider's location?
The process that can reduce expensive redundant tests that are ordered because one provider does not have access to the clinical information stored at another provider's location is health information exchange.
What does health information exchange mean?The expression health information exchange makes reference to the shared info of medical records with patient consent in order to facilitate medical procedures in the clinical setting.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that health information exchange may be very useful to reduce time and costs during healthcare treatments in the clinical setting.
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a primary health care provider prescribes 1000 ml of normal saline to be infused over a period of 10 hours. the drop factor is 15 drops (gtt) per ml. the nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? fill in the blank
A primary health care provider prescribes 1000 ml of normal saline to be infused over a period of 10 hours and the drop factor is 15 drops (GTT) per ml so the nurse sets the flow rate at 40 drops per minute.
Saline is a mixture of common salt and water. it's variety of uses in medication as well as improvement wounds, removal and storage of contact lenses, and facilitate with dry eyes. By injection into a vein it's wont to treat dehydration like that from intestinal flu and diabetic acidosis.
The drop factor, which may be found written on the IV tube package, is that the variety of drops (gtts) in one mililiter (mL) of resolution delivered by gravity. The speed is measured by numeration the amount of drops that make up the drip chamber every minute.
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