The caregiver's first action is to call the Care Manager to activate the agency's disaster plan.
What is the purpose of disaster planning?Secure and make available critical supplies, supplies, and equipment to ensure record security and recovery from foreseeable disasters. Reduce the risk of disasters caused by human error, deliberate destruction, and building and equipment failure. We recommend that you prepare for recovery from large-scale natural disasters. Disasters can also affect the social structure of communities. In this way, disaster management helps communities rebuild communities and reconnect people. Communities can start rebuilding local infrastructure after a disaster. This will also improve the economic health of the community.Who is responsible for the disaster?Although the primary responsibility for disaster management rests with the states, the central government supports the efforts of the state governments by providing logistical and financial support.
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a nurse is caring for a preterm newborn born at 29 weeks' gestation. which nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority?
The nursing diagnosis that would have the highest priority would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.
What is preterm newborn?Preterm newborn is defined as the infant that is delivered before 37 weeks of gestation. That is a baby that arrived earlier than full term baby which should be 40 weeks of gestation.
Nursing diagnosis is been drafted and carried out by a well professionally trained registered nurse and this should be done based on the order of priority.
A preterm baby has most of its organs and systems under developed and this makes it difficult to regulate the internal environment of the body to adapt to the ever changing environment.
Therefore, the most important nursing diagnosis would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.
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do wearable devices that monitor diet and physical activity help people lose weight? researchers had 237 subjects, already involved in a program of diet and exercise, use wearable technology for 24 months. they measured their weight (in kilograms) before using the technology and 24 months after using the technology.
Wearable technology can assist people in losing weight in a variety of ways when used in conjunction with an efficient weight management strategy.
What are wearable devices?Based on a behavior change paradigm, for as through boosting physical activity, tracking food intake, or fostering user support and communication.
Other wearables detect movement and speed using remote smart sensors and accelerometers, while some utilize optical sensors to measure glucose or heart rate.
Therefore, wearable devices are efficient weight management strategies to monitor diet and also physical activity.
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martin fell off his skateboard and badly bruised his elbow. he immediately began rubbing the area around the bruise until the pain subsided. this method of reducing pain can be explained by which of the following?
When Martin fell off his skateboard and badly bruised his elbow, he rubbed the area around it until the pain subsided. This method of reducing pain can be explained as: a gate-control theory.
What is the gate control theory?The gate control theory of pain is a mechanism in the spinal cord that sends pain signals to the brain to accentuate or eventually reduce pain. By rubbing the area around his bruise, Martin can trigger the mechanism to reduce his pain. This neurological gate blocks pain signals and allows the non-painful input (the rubs) to travel to the brain.
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while receiving heparin to treat a pulmonary embolus, a client passes bright red urine. what should the nurse do first?
The nurse first to prepare to administer protamine sulfate while receiving heparin to treat a pulmonary embolus.
How much heparin is given for pulmonary embolism?Heparin in a stable low dose of 5000 U SC every 8 or 12 hours is an effective and safe form of prophylaxis in medical and surgical patients at the chance of venous thromboembolism. Low-dose heparin lowers the risk of venous thrombosis and fatal PE by 60% to 70%. Heparin works by operating antithrombin III to slow or prevent the progression of DVT and to reduce the size and frequency of PE.
Heparin does not solvate existing clots. Unfractionated heparin most usually is used to treat patients with PE, although LMW heparin also is safe and effective. Only enoxaparin and tinzaparin have received formal FDA approval for use in the treatment of PE.
So we can conclude that The majority of patients with acute PE are still treated with heparin products, most commonly intravenous unfractionated heparin.
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the nurse assessing a client with an exacerbation of heart failure identifies which symptom as a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure (hf)?
The nurse assessing a client with an exacerbation of heart failure identifies dizziness symptom as a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure (HF).
A heart failure exacerbation is any abnormality related to the muscles of the heart and/or its function. As a result, patients will expertise a spread of symptoms that indicate the guts is compromised. the foremost common symptoms include: Shortness of breath. Fatigue and weakness
Dizziness has several potential causes, together with sensory receptor disturbance, sickness and drugs effects. generally it's caused by associate underlying health condition, like poor circulation, infection or injury. The manner giddiness causes you to feel and your triggers offer clues for potential causes.
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a nurse is teaching a client about a circumcision. which external reproductive structure is removed by circumcision?
The external reproductive structure that is surgically removed during circumcision is the foreskin; the tissue that covers the glans.
What is circumcision and its benefits?This procedure is fairly common in newborns in certain parts of the world, including the United States. Circumcision after the neonatal period is possible, but is a more complicated procedure. Some families choose circumcision because of their cultural or religious beliefs. Juvenile circumcision is a very common procedure.Potential medical benefits of circumcision include: low risk of HIV, slightly lower risk of other sexually transmitted infections, slightly lower risk of urinary tract infections and penile cancer.Does Circumcision affect Pleasure?Morris' systematic review of early his MC conducted in Australia in a total of 40,473 men found that medical circumcision (MC) had no adverse effects on sexual function, sensitivity, or pleasure.
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the nurse is reviewing a plan of care for a client with cancer of the cervix who is undergoing treatment with a cesium (radiation) implant. which nursing interventions are most appropriate for this client? select all that apply.
Irregular vaginal bleeding or spotting are early sign of this cancer
Cervical cancer is a kind of cancer that happens within the cells of the cervix — the lower a part of the uterus that connects to the vagina.
numerous strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), a sexually transmitted contamination, play a role in inflicting most cervical cancer.
when uncovered to HPV, the frame's immune system usually prevents the virus from doing damage. In a small percent of human beings, but, the virus survives for years, contributing to the system that causes some cervical cells to become cancer cells.
you could reduce your hazard of growing cervical cancer by having screening tests and receiving a vaccine that protects against HPV contamination.
symptoms
locations of woman reproductive organs
woman reproductive systemOpen pop-up dialog box
Early-degree cervical most cancers commonly produces no signs or symptoms.
signs and symptoms of more-superior cervical cancer include:
Vaginal bleeding after sex, among intervals or after menopauseWatery, bloody vaginal discharge that can be heavy and have a foul odor
Pelvic pain or pain throughout sex
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a client has recently lost a parent. the client spent about 6 months deeply mourning the loss and is just now able to function at the pre-loss level. during this process, a strong social support network was able to assist the client. what developmental stage of life does the nurse identify the client is in?
The client is in the adult development stage of life.
What is the most important goal of care for the dying client who is receiving comfort care?
The goal of palliative care is to relieve the suffering of patients and their families through the comprehensive assessment and treatment of physical, psychosocial, and spiritual symptoms experienced by patients.
Which signs assessed in a dying client would the nurse recognize as signs of death?
The most common signs and symptoms before death include increased pulse/respiratory rate, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, cool/mottled skin, and decreased urine output. It is important to provide support for the patient and family throughout the entire dying process.
Thus, the client is in the adult stage of life.
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you are transporting a stable patient with a possible pneumothorax. the patient is receiving high-flow oxygen and has an oxygen saturation of 95%. during your reassessment, you find that the patient is now confused, hypotensive, and profusely diaphoretic. what is most likely causing this patient's deterioration?
The degeneration of this patient is most likely due to compression of the aorta and vena cava.
A collapsed lung is known as a pneumothorax. When air seeps into the area between your lung and chest wall, it results in a pneumothorax. Your lung collapses as a result of the air pushing on its outside. A pneumothorax can be either a partial or total collapse of the lungs.
Pneumothorax's Symptoms
When trying to breathe in, a sharp, stabbing chest discomfort gets greater.Breathing difficulty.Lack of oxygen causes bluish skin.Fatigue.rapid pulse and Breathing.a hacking, dry cough.To learn more about pneumothorax click here,
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a nurse is teaching a client and the client's family about chronic pancreatitis. which are the major causes of chronic pancreatitis?
Answer:
Elevated triglyceride levels in the patient's blood.
a patient has stable ventriculat tachycardia. what can the nurse instruct the patient to do while waiting for thr provider
Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds.
When a patient has an unstable ventricular tachycardia, CPR (cough) may occasionally be utilized. If cough CPR is recommended, the nurse instructs the client to perform it by taking deep breaths and coughing vigorously every one to three seconds. Cough CPR may stop the dysrhythmia or temporarily maintain the coronary and cerebral circulation until additional procedures can be taken.
A patient with ventricular tachycardia who is not breathing should be defibrillated right away. The client has a better probability of survival the earlier defibrillation is performed.
In order to reduce the rapid heartbeat and restore the normal cardiac rhythm, ventricular tachycardia may be treated with medicine, a shock to the heart (cardioversion), catheter operations, or surgery.
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the surgical unit nurse has just received a patient with a history of smoking from the post-anesthesia care unit. which action is most important at this time?
The most crucial action at this time is to remind the patient of the negative effects of smoking.
How can smoking impact anesthesia?Even inhaling smoke has an impact on anesthesia. The ideal time to stop smoking is at least 8 weeks before surgery, but if that is not possible, at least 24 hours. The majority of issues should be avoided with an anxiolytic premedication and smooth, deep anesthesia.
Nicotine's impact on anesthesia:The deleterious effects of nicotine on the circulatory system might cause irregular or unstable blood pressure (hemodynamic instability) when a person is under general anesthesia. Furthermore, it has been demonstrated that smoking has negative effects on blood flow, heart rate, and blood pressure.
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the nurse is performing an assessment on a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. which assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? select all that apply.
The assessment findings that the nurse should expect to observe include the following; Pallor, Edema, Anorexia, Proteinuria.
What is nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome is defined as the type of disorder.thay affects the kidney whereby the damage of the kidney blood vessels leads to an excessive excretion of proteins in the urine.
The clinical manifestations found in an individual with nephrotic syndrome include the following:
peripheral edema, foamy urine, generalized swelling, puffy eyes, or weight gain, blood clots, fatigue, or loss of appetite(anorexia)pallor,Proteinuria.Therefore, the nurse is expected to observe protein in the urine because of the inability of the kidney to filter protein from the blood.
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All of the assessment findings which this nurse should expect to observe in a child admitted with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome include the following:
1. Pallor
2. Edema
3. Anorexia
4. Proteinuria
What is a kidney?A kidney can be defined as a pair of bean-shaped organ that is found in the body of an organism and it is typically responsible for the excretion of excess fluids as wastes. Additionally, the kidney helps to filter blood and produce urine in living organisms such as human beings (children).
What is nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome can be defined as a kidney disorder that causes body of a living organism to release too much protein from the blood into the urine, especially due to an inflammation of glomeruli.
Therefore, nephrotic syndrome is typically caused as a result of the damage to clusters of small blood vessels within the kidney and some of the symptoms to observe in patients include the following:
PallorLoss of appetite.ProteinuriaWeight gainSevere swelling (edema).AnorexiaRead more on kidney here: brainly.com/question/15490784
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Complete Question:
The nurse is performing an assessment on a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? Select all that apply.
1. Pallor
2. Edema
3. Anorexia
4. Proteinuria
5. Weight loss
6. Decreased serum lipids
a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, has been spending thousands of dollars on clothing and makeup. she has been partying in bars every night and rarely sleeps or eats. the nurse in the outpatient clinic, knowing that this client rarely eats, recognizes that her eating problems most likely result from what?
The nurse in the outpatient clinic, knowing that this client rarely eats, recognizes that her eating problems most likely result from Excessive physical activity.
What is Excessive physical activity?
Although exercise is generally good for our bodies and minds, overtraining is unavoidable. A sense of exhaustion, changes in appetite, a decline in performance, a propensity for injury, and an inability to advance further are all symptoms of over-exercising.
What results from daily exercise?
Your muscle strength and endurance can both increase with regular exercise. Exercise helps your circulatory system function more effectively and distributes oxygen and nutrients to your tissues. Additionally, you have greater energy to do everyday tasks as your heart and lung health improves.
Hence Excessive physical activity is a correct answer.
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during a neonatal examination, the nurse notices that the newborn infant has six toes. this finding is documented as:
During a neonatal examination, the nurse notices that the newborn infant has six toes. this finding is documented as polydactyly.
Polydactyly, or having extra fingers or toes, is a medical term. Syndactyly is the term for the web that connects adjacent fingers or toes.
The webbing of the fingers or toes is known as syndactyly. The connecting of two or more fingers or toes is described. Often, the only physical connection between the areas is skin. The bones occasionally could fuse together. Syndactyly is typically seen during a child's medical examination. Usually, webbing appears between the second and third toes. This shape seems to be hereditary and is usual. Syndactyly can occur together with other congenital malformations affecting the skull, face, and bones.
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ST has had problems with anxiety and was previously prescribed with Alprazolam 0.75 mg PO. You have on hand Xanax 0.25 mg tablets. How many will you dispense
For a person who takes 0.75 mg of Alprazolam, three of Xanax 0.25 mg tablets should be dispensed.
Are Xanax a substitute for Alprazolam?Xanax is a brand name for Alprazolam, a type of benzodiazepine and is considered as the same thing only produced by a different company. Alprazolam is a prescription drug used in the treatment of anxiety and panic disorder.
It works by reducing the abnormal excitement activities of the brain to give the user a sense of calmness. In giving a person with anxiety problem that has a prescription of 0.75mg Alprazolam 0.25mg tablets of Xanax, divide 0.75mg by 0.25mg to get 3 and administer 3 tablets.
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what is the primary purpose for completing a dysphagia screening for an inpatient who had a right cva several days ago?
To evaluate whether further testing is necessary after observing the patient's oral motor control. A screening enables the OTR to rapidly identify the presence of a deficit and decide whether a more thorough evaluation is required; it is not used for diagnosis or treatment planning.
What is oral motor control?The term "oral motor skills" describes how the muscles in the mouth, jaw, tongue, lips, and cheeks move. These oral structures' strength, coordination, and control serve as the basis for feeding-related activities like sucking, biting, crunching, licking, and chewing. They are crucial for face expression and vocal articulation as well. When assessing a person's ability to eat, additional sensory-related functions are taken into consideration in addition to the development of oral motor skills. Tolerating various tastes, scents, and textures as well as maintaining a functioning level of alertness and attention throughout the day need effective sensory modulation, or the capacity to keep one's nervous system in a stable and comfortable condition.To feel and move food efficiently in the mouth, one needs accurate discrimination of touch and muscle/joint information, as well as the development of motor planning skills.The following are signs of oral motor and sensory functioning limitations:Limited dietary preferencesExcessive droolingDifficulty sucking, chewing and swallowingpoor articulationMessy eating habitsTo learn more about oral motor control, refer to
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a child with growth hormone deficiency is prescribed growth hormone (gh) by subcutaneous injection. when teaching the child's parents about this drug, the nurse would instruct the parents to administer the drug at which frequency?
Subcutaneous (sub-Q-TAIN-ee-us) injections are used to administer GH, which indicates that the substance enters the fatty tissue immediately below the skin's surface.
What to expect with Growth Hormone Treatment?Growth is primarily what to anticipate. The important thing is that your child will grow — probably 1 to 2 inches within the first 6 months of starting treatment. It takes about 3 to 6 months to notice any height differences, but this is not the most important thing. You might also notice the following things:Your child's shoes might become quickly unfit. You may need to buy new shoes more frequently if your feet grow within 6 to 8 weeks.Your child might desire more food. An improvement in appetite is typical, particularly if the patient had a poor appetite prior to treatment.Once height growth begins, your child might appear thinner for a while. With GH therapy, an increase in lean body mass and a decrease in fat mass are frequent outcomes.You should be informed that GH treatment is frequently a lengthy commitment since it may take your child a number of years to attain his or her adult height. Regular appointments with the pediatric endocrinologist, as well as infrequent x-rays and blood tests, will be required to track your child's treatment success. Although the course of treatment can vary, your kid will likely need to continue receiving GH until he or she has:Entire mature height was attainedComplete bone maturityLess than 2 cm in recent growth.To Learn more About Growth Hormone Treatment Refer To:
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which of the following medications may be administered concurrently with amphotericin b (fungizone) to help minimize the adverse reactions to this medication? which of the following medications may be administered concurrently with amphotericin b (fungizone) to help minimize the adverse reactions to this medication? antipyretics beta-adrenergic blockers sedatives diuretics
Antipyretics is the medication that may be administered concurrently with amphotericin b (fungizone) to help minimize the adverse reactions to this medication.
A drug that lowers fever is known as an antipyretic ( aentipartk, from the words anti- "against" and pyretic "feverish"). [1] The hypothalamus is forced by antipyretics to overcome a prostaglandin-induced rise in body temperature. The fever eventually lessens as a result of the body's efforts to reduce the temperature.
The majority of antipyretic drugs also serve additional functions. Ibuprofen, aspirin, and paracetamol (acetaminophen), analgesics lacking anti-inflammatory qualities that are often used as anti-inflammatories and analgesics (pain relievers) but also have antipyretic effects, are the most frequently used antipyretics in the US.
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you are a medical doctor and have a patient in their 50s. the patient is concerned about osteoporosis. what would you suggest as a preventative treatment?
which irrigation technique is best? pour the saline directly onto the wound from the bottle. moisten a sterile gauze pad and pat the gauze over the wound. irrigate as gently as possible using a 60-ml bulb syringe. apply steady pressure using a 35 ml syringe and 19-gauge needle.
The best irrigation technique is, Using a 35-ml syringe and 19-gauge needle provides 8 pounds per square inch (PSI). The irrigation used here is wound irrigation,
Wound irrigation is easy to perform, quick, inexpensive and effective.
Normal saline is the most frequently used irritant, as it is proved tap water cures it fast and is an cost effective way.
It should be irrigated as slowly as possible using a large syringe.
It is adequate pressure to ensure effective irrigation.
It is always advised to use irrigation pressure between 4 and 15 psi.
If we apply too much pressure it can actually force surface bacteria into the wound bed.
If we apply too low pressure it will fail to remove surface bacteria it may lead to wound infection.
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a nurse cares for a female client of childbearing age who will undergo bariatric surgery. when teaching the client about precautions after surgery, which teaching will the nurse include that is specific to this population?
These are the teachings the nurse will mention that are particular to this population while discussing precautions following bariatric surgery with the client: "You should prevent pregnancy for at least 18 months after your surgery."
A female patient of reproductive age should be advised by the nurse to refrain from becoming pregnant for at least 18 months following bariatric surgery. Following weight loss surgery, it's more likely to become better than get worse when it comes to fertility. Following surgery, contraceptives are just as effective as before.
As a result, we can state that the nurse will specifically instruct this population while discussing post-bariatric surgery precautions with the client: "You should prevent pregnancy for at least 18 months following surgery."
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Complete Question
A nurse cares for a female client of childbearing age who will undergo bariatric surgery. When teaching the client about precautions after surgery, which teaching will the nurse include that is specific to this population?
A. "After surgery, your ability to conceive is decreased considerably."
B. "After surgery, contraceptives have much less efficacy."
C. "You should avoid pregnancy for at least 18 months after surgery."
D. "You should avoid pregnancy for at least 9 months after surgery"
Which of the
following use pore
formation as a way to
lysis foreign
pathogens or
diseased self-cells?
-Natural Killer Cells
-Cytotoxic T cells
-Plasma B cells
-Complement
-Megakaryocytes
-Helper T cells
To lyse foreign pathogens or ill self-cells, one can use cytotoxic T cells.
The ideal answer is B.
What is the most frequent means through which the immune system defends us against invading microbes?Antibodies. The body uses antibodies to combat microorganisms and the toxins (poisons) they create. They accomplish this by identifying molecules known as antigens that are either present on the microbe's surface or in the chemicals that it produces and brand it as a foreign substance. These antigens are then marked by the antibodies for elimination.
In bacterial cell membranes, which protein creates pores?We gave the protein the name perforin-2 on the grounds that it is a brand-new pore-forming protein. A pore-forming protein is expressed in macrophages, which suggests that it may be employed to eradicate intracellular bacteria.
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1811 - a four year old patient has hot, dry skin after being inside a car with the windows rolled up on a hot day. you should
Rapidly cool the patient with ice packs all over if a 4-year-old child has hot, dry skin after being in a car with the windows rolled up on a hot day. When left alone in a hot car, children are more likely to perish as the temperature outside climbs.
After being in a hot car, if a youngster displays any of these symptoms, call 911 or your local emergency number right away. Never use an ice bath; swiftly chill the youngster with cool water or moist clothes. Heatstroke can occur at temperatures as low as 57 degrees, and children's body temperatures can rise five times faster than those of adults. An automobile can reach lethal levels in just 10 minutes on an 80-degree day.
Thus, if a youngster has hot, dry skin after being in a car with the windows pulled up on a hot day, we can state that they should be rapidly cooled with ice packs all over.
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Your question is incomplete. Please find the complete question below.
Question: 811 - A four-year-old patient has hot dry skin after being inside a car with the windows rolled up on a hot day. You should
A. Cover with wet blankets to prevent rapid cooling
B. Rapidly cool patient with ice packs everywhere
C. Pour water on the patient and fan vigorously
D. Call the PD to report suspected child abuse
a client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (ptca) immediately following confirmed diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. the client is overtly anxious and crying. which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
For a client who is extremely anxious and crying and is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCS) immediately following a confirmed diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction, the appropriate response by the nurse should be "Tell me what concerns you most."
Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), is a minimally invasive procedure that opens blocked coronary arteries to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. First, a local anesthetic is used to numb the groin area. The doctor then inserts a needle into the femoral artery, which runs down the leg.
Acute myocardial infarction is myocardial necrosis caused by an acute blockage of a coronary artery. Symptoms include chest discomfort, nausea, and/or diaphoresis, with or without dyspnea. Electrocardiography (ECG) and the presence or absence of serologic markers are used to make the diagnosis.
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a primary health care provider prescribes 1000 ml of normal saline to be infused over a period of 10 hours. the drop factor is 15 drops (gtt) per ml. the nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? fill in the blank
A primary health care provider prescribes 1000 ml of normal saline to be infused over a period of 10 hours and the drop factor is 15 drops (GTT) per ml so the nurse sets the flow rate at 40 drops per minute.
Saline is a mixture of common salt and water. it's variety of uses in medication as well as improvement wounds, removal and storage of contact lenses, and facilitate with dry eyes. By injection into a vein it's wont to treat dehydration like that from intestinal flu and diabetic acidosis.
The drop factor, which may be found written on the IV tube package, is that the variety of drops (gtts) in one mililiter (mL) of resolution delivered by gravity. The speed is measured by numeration the amount of drops that make up the drip chamber every minute.
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how do histone deacetylase inhibitors work
The removal of acetyl functional groups from the lysine residues of both histone and nonhistone proteins is catalysed by enzymes known as histone deacetylases (HDACs).
What is non histone protein ?
Non-histone proteins are those proteins in chromatin that persist after the removal of the histones. The chromosome is organised and compacted into higher order structures by a wide group of heterogeneous proteins known as non-histone proteins. They are essential in controlling procedures such as the remodelling of nucleosomes, DNA replication, RNA synthesis and processing, nuclear transport, the action of steroid hormones, and the transition between interphase and mitosis. Common non-histone proteins include scaffold proteins, DNA polymerase, Heterochromatin Protein 1, and Polycomb. There are numerous additional structural, regulatory, and motor proteins in this categorization category. Acidic non-histone proteins exist.
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a client has been told that stimulation of their chemoreceptor trigger zone (ctz) is responsible for their current symptoms. what nursing action indicates that the nurse is aware of the role of the ctz?
A client has been told that stimulation of their chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) is responsible for their current symptoms and it's role is planning care to manage the client's nausea and vomiting.
The CTZ is stirred by endogenous unhealthful substances created in acute infectious diseases or metabolic disorders like azotaemia and diabetic diabetic acidosis and by medicine and different exogenous toxins. It's conjointly known as the realm postrema. Once the CTZ is stirred, vomiting might occur.
Nausea is feeling associated urge to vomit. t's usually known as "being sick to your abdomen." Vomiting or throwing-up is forcing the contents of the abdomen up through the food pipe (esophagus) and out of the mouth.
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when personal and health problems related to alcohol use have become severe and a person suffers withdrawal symptoms if they don't drink, they have reached the point of alcoholism or group of answer choices tolerance. binge drinking. inebriation. alcohol dependence.
when personal and health problems related to alcohol use have become severe and a person suffers withdrawal symptoms if they don't drink, they have reached the point of alcoholism or alcohol dependence.
Individual in alcohol dependence is individual is physically or psychologically dependent upon alcohol.
The individual regular, heavy drinking habits can result in alcohol dependence and alcoholism.
An alcohol dependence person shows,
1. He keeps drinking alcohol regularly and aimlessly.
2. Develop a tolerance for alcohol.
3. There is withdrawal symptoms if one does not drink it.
4. Craving alcohol day and night and no managing time.
5. Spend less time doing more important things
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A client had a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). What medication will the nurse administer to prevent thrombus formation in the stent?
A. Diltiazem
B. Isosorbide mononitrate
C. Clopidogrel
D. Metoprolol
The nurse will administer Diltiazem to prevent thrombus formation in the stent after a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA).
Diltiazem is used to lower high blood pressure and prevent thrombus. Diltiazem is given to people with high blood pressure avoid heart disease, heart attacks, and strokes in the future. Diltiazem is used to prevent angina. A calcium channel blocker called diltiazem is used to treat hypertension and control chronic stable angina. A derivative of benzothiazepine having antihypertensive and vasodilating effects is diltiazem.
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