the staff educator would identify Respiratory decompensation as the most common cause of emergent situations in infants.
Respiratory decompensation is defined as the need for supplemental oxygen of any type, a high-flow nasal cannula, noninvasive ventilation (bilevel positive pressure or continuous positive pressure), or endotracheal intubation within 72 hours of admission.
An Emergent Situation is defined as a sudden, urgent, or unexpected occurrence or occasion that necessitates immediate action to protect against an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare or to protect against an imminent threat of significant property damage.
If your Infant is not breathing, is unconscious or is having a seizure, or you are concerned that your child's life is in danger or that your child is seriously ill or injured, dial 911.
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a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, has been spending thousands of dollars on clothing and makeup. she has been partying in bars every night and rarely sleeps or eats. the nurse in the outpatient clinic, knowing that this client rarely eats, recognizes that her eating problems most likely result from what?
The nurse in the outpatient clinic, knowing that this client rarely eats, recognizes that her eating problems most likely result from Excessive physical activity.
What is Excessive physical activity?
Although exercise is generally good for our bodies and minds, overtraining is unavoidable. A sense of exhaustion, changes in appetite, a decline in performance, a propensity for injury, and an inability to advance further are all symptoms of over-exercising.
What results from daily exercise?
Your muscle strength and endurance can both increase with regular exercise. Exercise helps your circulatory system function more effectively and distributes oxygen and nutrients to your tissues. Additionally, you have greater energy to do everyday tasks as your heart and lung health improves.
Hence Excessive physical activity is a correct answer.
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ST has had problems with anxiety and was previously prescribed with Alprazolam 0.75 mg PO. You have on hand Xanax 0.25 mg tablets. How many will you dispense
For a person who takes 0.75 mg of Alprazolam, three of Xanax 0.25 mg tablets should be dispensed.
Are Xanax a substitute for Alprazolam?Xanax is a brand name for Alprazolam, a type of benzodiazepine and is considered as the same thing only produced by a different company. Alprazolam is a prescription drug used in the treatment of anxiety and panic disorder.
It works by reducing the abnormal excitement activities of the brain to give the user a sense of calmness. In giving a person with anxiety problem that has a prescription of 0.75mg Alprazolam 0.25mg tablets of Xanax, divide 0.75mg by 0.25mg to get 3 and administer 3 tablets.
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a child is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus (di) and will start on the medication desmopressin. which instruction(s) would the nurse include in teaching the parent about administering this drug? select all that apply.
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus develops when your kidneys' ability to respond to ADH is compromised due to a structural defect in your kidneys.
What organs are affected by diabetes insipidus?The posterior pituitary gland is impacted by a disorder referred to as DI.It decreases ADH output (vasopressin).ADH increases urea concentration.The kidneys lose a lot of water and retain salt as a result of this decline.The aim of treatment is to replace vasopressin.For this, desmopressin is employed.The drug is frequently administered as a nasal spray or drop. The dosage is based on the child's age, the volume of urine produced, and the specific gravity of the urine.It is necessary to measure the specific gravity at home. The medication needs to be kept cold.Before administering, one must clear their nostrils.The presence of mucous will prevent proper absorption.Not repeating the dose if the youngster sneezesA long-acting vasopressin analog, the medication.Every 8 to 12 hours, not every hour, is when it must be given.To learn more about diabetes insipidus refer
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the nurse assessing a client with an exacerbation of heart failure identifies which symptom as a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure (hf)?
The nurse assessing a client with an exacerbation of heart failure identifies dizziness symptom as a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure (HF).
A heart failure exacerbation is any abnormality related to the muscles of the heart and/or its function. As a result, patients will expertise a spread of symptoms that indicate the guts is compromised. the foremost common symptoms include: Shortness of breath. Fatigue and weakness
Dizziness has several potential causes, together with sensory receptor disturbance, sickness and drugs effects. generally it's caused by associate underlying health condition, like poor circulation, infection or injury. The manner giddiness causes you to feel and your triggers offer clues for potential causes.
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how do histone deacetylase inhibitors work
The removal of acetyl functional groups from the lysine residues of both histone and nonhistone proteins is catalysed by enzymes known as histone deacetylases (HDACs).
What is non histone protein ?
Non-histone proteins are those proteins in chromatin that persist after the removal of the histones. The chromosome is organised and compacted into higher order structures by a wide group of heterogeneous proteins known as non-histone proteins. They are essential in controlling procedures such as the remodelling of nucleosomes, DNA replication, RNA synthesis and processing, nuclear transport, the action of steroid hormones, and the transition between interphase and mitosis. Common non-histone proteins include scaffold proteins, DNA polymerase, Heterochromatin Protein 1, and Polycomb. There are numerous additional structural, regulatory, and motor proteins in this categorization category. Acidic non-histone proteins exist.
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a patient has stable ventriculat tachycardia. what can the nurse instruct the patient to do while waiting for thr provider
Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds.
When a patient has an unstable ventricular tachycardia, CPR (cough) may occasionally be utilized. If cough CPR is recommended, the nurse instructs the client to perform it by taking deep breaths and coughing vigorously every one to three seconds. Cough CPR may stop the dysrhythmia or temporarily maintain the coronary and cerebral circulation until additional procedures can be taken.
A patient with ventricular tachycardia who is not breathing should be defibrillated right away. The client has a better probability of survival the earlier defibrillation is performed.
In order to reduce the rapid heartbeat and restore the normal cardiac rhythm, ventricular tachycardia may be treated with medicine, a shock to the heart (cardioversion), catheter operations, or surgery.
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What is the term for the expanded segment of the spinal cord where nerves that serve the shoulder and upper limbs exit?.
a nurse cares for a female client of childbearing age who will undergo bariatric surgery. when teaching the client about precautions after surgery, which teaching will the nurse include that is specific to this population?
These are the teachings the nurse will mention that are particular to this population while discussing precautions following bariatric surgery with the client: "You should prevent pregnancy for at least 18 months after your surgery."
A female patient of reproductive age should be advised by the nurse to refrain from becoming pregnant for at least 18 months following bariatric surgery. Following weight loss surgery, it's more likely to become better than get worse when it comes to fertility. Following surgery, contraceptives are just as effective as before.
As a result, we can state that the nurse will specifically instruct this population while discussing post-bariatric surgery precautions with the client: "You should prevent pregnancy for at least 18 months following surgery."
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Complete Question
A nurse cares for a female client of childbearing age who will undergo bariatric surgery. When teaching the client about precautions after surgery, which teaching will the nurse include that is specific to this population?
A. "After surgery, your ability to conceive is decreased considerably."
B. "After surgery, contraceptives have much less efficacy."
C. "You should avoid pregnancy for at least 18 months after surgery."
D. "You should avoid pregnancy for at least 9 months after surgery"
a client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (ptca) immediately following confirmed diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. the client is overtly anxious and crying. which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
For a client who is extremely anxious and crying and is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCS) immediately following a confirmed diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction, the appropriate response by the nurse should be "Tell me what concerns you most."
Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), is a minimally invasive procedure that opens blocked coronary arteries to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. First, a local anesthetic is used to numb the groin area. The doctor then inserts a needle into the femoral artery, which runs down the leg.
Acute myocardial infarction is myocardial necrosis caused by an acute blockage of a coronary artery. Symptoms include chest discomfort, nausea, and/or diaphoresis, with or without dyspnea. Electrocardiography (ECG) and the presence or absence of serologic markers are used to make the diagnosis.
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do wearable devices that monitor diet and physical activity help people lose weight? researchers had 237 subjects, already involved in a program of diet and exercise, use wearable technology for 24 months. they measured their weight (in kilograms) before using the technology and 24 months after using the technology.
Wearable technology can assist people in losing weight in a variety of ways when used in conjunction with an efficient weight management strategy.
What are wearable devices?Based on a behavior change paradigm, for as through boosting physical activity, tracking food intake, or fostering user support and communication.
Other wearables detect movement and speed using remote smart sensors and accelerometers, while some utilize optical sensors to measure glucose or heart rate.
Therefore, wearable devices are efficient weight management strategies to monitor diet and also physical activity.
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what is the primary purpose for completing a dysphagia screening for an inpatient who had a right cva several days ago?
To evaluate whether further testing is necessary after observing the patient's oral motor control. A screening enables the OTR to rapidly identify the presence of a deficit and decide whether a more thorough evaluation is required; it is not used for diagnosis or treatment planning.
What is oral motor control?The term "oral motor skills" describes how the muscles in the mouth, jaw, tongue, lips, and cheeks move. These oral structures' strength, coordination, and control serve as the basis for feeding-related activities like sucking, biting, crunching, licking, and chewing. They are crucial for face expression and vocal articulation as well. When assessing a person's ability to eat, additional sensory-related functions are taken into consideration in addition to the development of oral motor skills. Tolerating various tastes, scents, and textures as well as maintaining a functioning level of alertness and attention throughout the day need effective sensory modulation, or the capacity to keep one's nervous system in a stable and comfortable condition.To feel and move food efficiently in the mouth, one needs accurate discrimination of touch and muscle/joint information, as well as the development of motor planning skills.The following are signs of oral motor and sensory functioning limitations:Limited dietary preferencesExcessive droolingDifficulty sucking, chewing and swallowingpoor articulationMessy eating habitsTo learn more about oral motor control, refer to
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1811 - a four year old patient has hot, dry skin after being inside a car with the windows rolled up on a hot day. you should
Rapidly cool the patient with ice packs all over if a 4-year-old child has hot, dry skin after being in a car with the windows rolled up on a hot day. When left alone in a hot car, children are more likely to perish as the temperature outside climbs.
After being in a hot car, if a youngster displays any of these symptoms, call 911 or your local emergency number right away. Never use an ice bath; swiftly chill the youngster with cool water or moist clothes. Heatstroke can occur at temperatures as low as 57 degrees, and children's body temperatures can rise five times faster than those of adults. An automobile can reach lethal levels in just 10 minutes on an 80-degree day.
Thus, if a youngster has hot, dry skin after being in a car with the windows pulled up on a hot day, we can state that they should be rapidly cooled with ice packs all over.
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Your question is incomplete. Please find the complete question below.
Question: 811 - A four-year-old patient has hot dry skin after being inside a car with the windows rolled up on a hot day. You should
A. Cover with wet blankets to prevent rapid cooling
B. Rapidly cool patient with ice packs everywhere
C. Pour water on the patient and fan vigorously
D. Call the PD to report suspected child abuse
you are a medical doctor and have a patient in their 50s. the patient is concerned about osteoporosis. what would you suggest as a preventative treatment?
a primary health care provider prescribes 1000 ml of normal saline to be infused over a period of 10 hours. the drop factor is 15 drops (gtt) per ml. the nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? fill in the blank
A primary health care provider prescribes 1000 ml of normal saline to be infused over a period of 10 hours and the drop factor is 15 drops (GTT) per ml so the nurse sets the flow rate at 40 drops per minute.
Saline is a mixture of common salt and water. it's variety of uses in medication as well as improvement wounds, removal and storage of contact lenses, and facilitate with dry eyes. By injection into a vein it's wont to treat dehydration like that from intestinal flu and diabetic acidosis.
The drop factor, which may be found written on the IV tube package, is that the variety of drops (gtts) in one mililiter (mL) of resolution delivered by gravity. The speed is measured by numeration the amount of drops that make up the drip chamber every minute.
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the nurse is reviewing a plan of care for a client with cancer of the cervix who is undergoing treatment with a cesium (radiation) implant. which nursing interventions are most appropriate for this client? select all that apply.
Irregular vaginal bleeding or spotting are early sign of this cancer
Cervical cancer is a kind of cancer that happens within the cells of the cervix — the lower a part of the uterus that connects to the vagina.
numerous strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), a sexually transmitted contamination, play a role in inflicting most cervical cancer.
when uncovered to HPV, the frame's immune system usually prevents the virus from doing damage. In a small percent of human beings, but, the virus survives for years, contributing to the system that causes some cervical cells to become cancer cells.
you could reduce your hazard of growing cervical cancer by having screening tests and receiving a vaccine that protects against HPV contamination.
symptoms
locations of woman reproductive organs
woman reproductive systemOpen pop-up dialog box
Early-degree cervical most cancers commonly produces no signs or symptoms.
signs and symptoms of more-superior cervical cancer include:
Vaginal bleeding after sex, among intervals or after menopauseWatery, bloody vaginal discharge that can be heavy and have a foul odor
Pelvic pain or pain throughout sex
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you are transporting a stable patient with a possible pneumothorax. the patient is receiving high-flow oxygen and has an oxygen saturation of 95%. during your reassessment, you find that the patient is now confused, hypotensive, and profusely diaphoretic. what is most likely causing this patient's deterioration?
The degeneration of this patient is most likely due to compression of the aorta and vena cava.
A collapsed lung is known as a pneumothorax. When air seeps into the area between your lung and chest wall, it results in a pneumothorax. Your lung collapses as a result of the air pushing on its outside. A pneumothorax can be either a partial or total collapse of the lungs.
Pneumothorax's Symptoms
When trying to breathe in, a sharp, stabbing chest discomfort gets greater.Breathing difficulty.Lack of oxygen causes bluish skin.Fatigue.rapid pulse and Breathing.a hacking, dry cough.To learn more about pneumothorax click here,
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during a neonatal examination, the nurse notices that the newborn infant has six toes. this finding is documented as:
During a neonatal examination, the nurse notices that the newborn infant has six toes. this finding is documented as polydactyly.
Polydactyly, or having extra fingers or toes, is a medical term. Syndactyly is the term for the web that connects adjacent fingers or toes.
The webbing of the fingers or toes is known as syndactyly. The connecting of two or more fingers or toes is described. Often, the only physical connection between the areas is skin. The bones occasionally could fuse together. Syndactyly is typically seen during a child's medical examination. Usually, webbing appears between the second and third toes. This shape seems to be hereditary and is usual. Syndactyly can occur together with other congenital malformations affecting the skull, face, and bones.
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martin fell off his skateboard and badly bruised his elbow. he immediately began rubbing the area around the bruise until the pain subsided. this method of reducing pain can be explained by which of the following?
When Martin fell off his skateboard and badly bruised his elbow, he rubbed the area around it until the pain subsided. This method of reducing pain can be explained as: a gate-control theory.
What is the gate control theory?The gate control theory of pain is a mechanism in the spinal cord that sends pain signals to the brain to accentuate or eventually reduce pain. By rubbing the area around his bruise, Martin can trigger the mechanism to reduce his pain. This neurological gate blocks pain signals and allows the non-painful input (the rubs) to travel to the brain.
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a mother arrives at the hospital emergency department with her child, in whom a diagnosis of epiglottitis is documented. which prescription, if written by the primary health care provider, should the nurse question?
A mother arrives at the hospital emergency department with her child, in whom a diagnosis of epiglottitis is documented which prescription, if written by the primary health care provider, the nurse should question the throat culture.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional which specializes in the taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved thereby reducing the risks of complications.
Culture on the other hand is referred to as the growth of microbes in a specially prepared nutrient medium under controlled conditions. The nurse will have to question the throat culture during the diagnosis of epiglottitis.
This is important as it helps the healthcare professionals know the next line of action and treatment.
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a client was found wandering in a local park, unable to state who or where the client is or where the client lives. the client is brought to the emergency department, where an identification is eventually made. the client's spouse states that client was diagnosed with alzheimer's disease 3 years earlier and has experienced increasing memory loss. the spouse reports worry about how to continue to care for the client. which response by the nurse is most helpful?
The correct answer is "What aspect of caring for your husband is causing you the greatest concern?"
What is Alzheimer's disease ?
Alzheimer's disease is a brain ailment that gradually impairs memory, thinking abilities, and the capacity to complete even the most basic tasks. The majority of patients who have the condition experience symptoms of the late-onset variety starting in their mid- to late-60s. Rarely, early-onset Alzheimer's disease develops between the ages of 30 and 60. For older persons, Alzheimer's disease is the most typical cause of dementia.
Loss of connections between brain nerve cells is another characteristic. Messages are sent and received by neurons throughout the brain.
According to estimates, there are more than 6 million Americans living with Alzheimer's disease, many of them are older than 65. That is more people who have Alzheimer's disease than live in a major American metropolis. As family members and acquaintances of those who have the illness, many more people encounter Alzheimer's in their daily lives
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which of the following medications may be administered concurrently with amphotericin b (fungizone) to help minimize the adverse reactions to this medication? which of the following medications may be administered concurrently with amphotericin b (fungizone) to help minimize the adverse reactions to this medication? antipyretics beta-adrenergic blockers sedatives diuretics
Antipyretics is the medication that may be administered concurrently with amphotericin b (fungizone) to help minimize the adverse reactions to this medication.
A drug that lowers fever is known as an antipyretic ( aentipartk, from the words anti- "against" and pyretic "feverish"). [1] The hypothalamus is forced by antipyretics to overcome a prostaglandin-induced rise in body temperature. The fever eventually lessens as a result of the body's efforts to reduce the temperature.
The majority of antipyretic drugs also serve additional functions. Ibuprofen, aspirin, and paracetamol (acetaminophen), analgesics lacking anti-inflammatory qualities that are often used as anti-inflammatories and analgesics (pain relievers) but also have antipyretic effects, are the most frequently used antipyretics in the US.
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group of nurses is reviewing information about the complications associated with eating disorders. the group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify which as a possible cardiac complication? select all that apply.
Eating disorder cardiovascular complications are common and can be fatal. They may complain of chest pain. It is critical to determine whether this symptom is caused by the heart or by something else.
What is cardiac complication in eating disorders?Eating disorders (anorexia and bulimia) have the highest mortality rate of any psychiatric disorder. A large portion of this mortality and morbidity is caused by cardiovascular complications such as arrhythmia caused by a prolonged QTc interval and/or electrolyte imbalances, hypotension, and bradycardia.
The heart is structurally atrophic in patients with eating disorders, which may be related to long-term hypovolemia. Despite the presence of hypotension, these patients have low cardiac output and increased peripheral vascular resistance.
Eating disorders are treated with incremental caloric feeding, which has its own inherent cardiovascular risk (refeeding syndrome), manifested by arrhythmia, tachycardia, congestive heart failure, and sudden cardiac death. To reduce the risk of these complications, patients will require close monitoring and slower refeedings.
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Which of the
following use pore
formation as a way to
lysis foreign
pathogens or
diseased self-cells?
-Natural Killer Cells
-Cytotoxic T cells
-Plasma B cells
-Complement
-Megakaryocytes
-Helper T cells
To lyse foreign pathogens or ill self-cells, one can use cytotoxic T cells.
The ideal answer is B.
What is the most frequent means through which the immune system defends us against invading microbes?Antibodies. The body uses antibodies to combat microorganisms and the toxins (poisons) they create. They accomplish this by identifying molecules known as antigens that are either present on the microbe's surface or in the chemicals that it produces and brand it as a foreign substance. These antigens are then marked by the antibodies for elimination.
In bacterial cell membranes, which protein creates pores?We gave the protein the name perforin-2 on the grounds that it is a brand-new pore-forming protein. A pore-forming protein is expressed in macrophages, which suggests that it may be employed to eradicate intracellular bacteria.
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a client has recently lost a parent. the client spent about 6 months deeply mourning the loss and is just now able to function at the pre-loss level. during this process, a strong social support network was able to assist the client. what developmental stage of life does the nurse identify the client is in?
The client is in the adult development stage of life.
What is the most important goal of care for the dying client who is receiving comfort care?
The goal of palliative care is to relieve the suffering of patients and their families through the comprehensive assessment and treatment of physical, psychosocial, and spiritual symptoms experienced by patients.
Which signs assessed in a dying client would the nurse recognize as signs of death?
The most common signs and symptoms before death include increased pulse/respiratory rate, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, cool/mottled skin, and decreased urine output. It is important to provide support for the patient and family throughout the entire dying process.
Thus, the client is in the adult stage of life.
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chrystal jenner has completed her antibiotic therapy and is open for discharge from the hospital. the doctor placed an order to remove her peripherally inserted central catheter (picc). what important information do you need to know prior to removing a picc?
According to the research, the correct answer is the aspects of the procedure, supplies and condition of the patient if there is a risk of infection, blood clot or inflammation in the vein. These are important information needed to know prior to removing a peripherally inserted central catheter (picc).
What is peripherally inserted central catheter?It is a flexible tubular instrument that is inserted into a vein of the patient's upper extremity to drain fluids, wash, introduce drugs, feed through enterostomy.
In this sense, for the removal of the picc, once the intravenous therapy is finished, it is necessary to:
Know what a PICC is and the removal procedure, carefully examining the insertion area.Check the presence of complications (infection, extravasation, occlusion, obstruction)Systematically arrange the supplies near the patient's bed prior to the procedure.Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the PICC catheter is used when antibiotic treatments are received for a period of time and its removal can only be carried out by qualified medical personnel.
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the nurse is caring for a postpartum mother who delivered her second child yesterday. the mother states that her older child has just been diagnosed with chickenpox. she is concerned that her newborn will develop the disease. what is the best response by the nurse?
The response is Have you had chickenpox to mother by nurse
Chickenpox is an contamination resulting from the varicella-zoster virus. It reasons an itchy rash with small, fluid-crammed blisters. Chickenpox is surprisingly contagious to people who haven't had the disease or been vaccinated in opposition to it. nowadays, a vaccine is to be had that protects kids against chickenpox. routine vaccination is suggested by using the U.S. centers for disease control and Prevention (CDC).
The chickenpox vaccine is a safe, effective way to save you chickenpox and its feasible complications.
symptoms
The itchy blister rash as a result of chickenpox infection seems 10 to 21 days after publicity to the virus and typically lasts about five to 10 days. other symptoms and symptoms, which may additionally appear one to 2 days earlier than the rash, include:
Fever
loss of urge for food
Headache
Tiredness and a general feeling of being unwell (malaise)
once the chickenpox rash seems, it goes thru three levels:
Raised red or purple bumps (papules), which break out over numerous days
Small fluid-filled blisters (vesicles), which shape in approximately someday after which wreck and leak
Crusts and scabs, which cowl the damaged blisters and take several more days to heal
New bumps maintain to appear for several days, so you may additionally have all three degrees of the rash — bumps, blisters and scabbed lesions — on the identical time. you could spread the virus to other humans for up to 48 hours before the rash seems, and the virus stays contagious till all broken blisters have crusted over.
The ailment is generally moderate in wholesome youngsters. In severe instances, the rash can cowl the complete frame, and lesions may also shape in the throat, eyes, and mucous membranes of the urethra, anus and vagina.
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the nurse is performing an assessment on a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. which assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? select all that apply.
The assessment findings that the nurse should expect to observe include the following; Pallor, Edema, Anorexia, Proteinuria.
What is nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome is defined as the type of disorder.thay affects the kidney whereby the damage of the kidney blood vessels leads to an excessive excretion of proteins in the urine.
The clinical manifestations found in an individual with nephrotic syndrome include the following:
peripheral edema, foamy urine, generalized swelling, puffy eyes, or weight gain, blood clots, fatigue, or loss of appetite(anorexia)pallor,Proteinuria.Therefore, the nurse is expected to observe protein in the urine because of the inability of the kidney to filter protein from the blood.
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All of the assessment findings which this nurse should expect to observe in a child admitted with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome include the following:
1. Pallor
2. Edema
3. Anorexia
4. Proteinuria
What is a kidney?A kidney can be defined as a pair of bean-shaped organ that is found in the body of an organism and it is typically responsible for the excretion of excess fluids as wastes. Additionally, the kidney helps to filter blood and produce urine in living organisms such as human beings (children).
What is nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome can be defined as a kidney disorder that causes body of a living organism to release too much protein from the blood into the urine, especially due to an inflammation of glomeruli.
Therefore, nephrotic syndrome is typically caused as a result of the damage to clusters of small blood vessels within the kidney and some of the symptoms to observe in patients include the following:
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Complete Question:
The nurse is performing an assessment on a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? Select all that apply.
1. Pallor
2. Edema
3. Anorexia
4. Proteinuria
5. Weight loss
6. Decreased serum lipids
a nurse is caring for a preterm newborn born at 29 weeks' gestation. which nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority?
The nursing diagnosis that would have the highest priority would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.
What is preterm newborn?Preterm newborn is defined as the infant that is delivered before 37 weeks of gestation. That is a baby that arrived earlier than full term baby which should be 40 weeks of gestation.
Nursing diagnosis is been drafted and carried out by a well professionally trained registered nurse and this should be done based on the order of priority.
A preterm baby has most of its organs and systems under developed and this makes it difficult to regulate the internal environment of the body to adapt to the ever changing environment.
Therefore, the most important nursing diagnosis would be Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat.
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while receiving heparin to treat a pulmonary embolus, a client passes bright red urine. what should the nurse do first?
The nurse first to prepare to administer protamine sulfate while receiving heparin to treat a pulmonary embolus.
How much heparin is given for pulmonary embolism?Heparin in a stable low dose of 5000 U SC every 8 or 12 hours is an effective and safe form of prophylaxis in medical and surgical patients at the chance of venous thromboembolism. Low-dose heparin lowers the risk of venous thrombosis and fatal PE by 60% to 70%. Heparin works by operating antithrombin III to slow or prevent the progression of DVT and to reduce the size and frequency of PE.
Heparin does not solvate existing clots. Unfractionated heparin most usually is used to treat patients with PE, although LMW heparin also is safe and effective. Only enoxaparin and tinzaparin have received formal FDA approval for use in the treatment of PE.
So we can conclude that The majority of patients with acute PE are still treated with heparin products, most commonly intravenous unfractionated heparin.
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the surgical unit nurse has just received a patient with a history of smoking from the post-anesthesia care unit. which action is most important at this time?
The most crucial action at this time is to remind the patient of the negative effects of smoking.
How can smoking impact anesthesia?Even inhaling smoke has an impact on anesthesia. The ideal time to stop smoking is at least 8 weeks before surgery, but if that is not possible, at least 24 hours. The majority of issues should be avoided with an anxiolytic premedication and smooth, deep anesthesia.
Nicotine's impact on anesthesia:The deleterious effects of nicotine on the circulatory system might cause irregular or unstable blood pressure (hemodynamic instability) when a person is under general anesthesia. Furthermore, it has been demonstrated that smoking has negative effects on blood flow, heart rate, and blood pressure.
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