False. General Motors (GM) did not sustain significant profit losses as a result of Brexit and resulting currency exchange fluctuations during the fourth quarter of 2017.
In fact, GM reported strong financial results for that quarter, with a net income of $2.4 billion. However, the impact of Brexit and currency exchange fluctuations on GM's financial performance in the long term remains uncertain. If GM experienced significant profit losses during the fourth quarter of 2017 due to Brexit and resulting currency exchange fluctuations, it could mean that the company's operations and financial performance were negatively impacted by these events.
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what is the gross development profit margin (rounded to the nearest percent) for a going in cap rate of 10 and a selling cap rate of 7? stabilized noi is $1,000,000.
The gross development profit margin (rounded to the nearest percent) for a going-in cap rate of 10 and a selling cap rate of 7, with a stabilized NOI of $1,000,000, is approximately 43%.
To find the gross development profit margin, we will use the going in cap rate, selling cap rate, and stabilized NOI. Here are the steps to find the gross development profit margin:
1. Calculate the property value based on the going in cap rate.
Property Value = Stabilized NOI / Going in Cap Rate
Property Value = $1,000,000 / 0.10
Property Value = $10,000,000
2. Calculate the property value based on the selling cap rate.
Property Value = Stabilized NOI / Selling Cap Rate
Property Value = $1,000,000 / 0.07
Property Value = $14,285,714
3. Find the gross development profit.
Gross Development Profit = Property Value (Selling Cap Rate) - Property Value (Going in Cap Rate)
Gross Development Profit = $14,285,714 - $10,000,000
Gross Development Profit = $4,285,714
4. Calculate the gross development profit margin.
Gross Development Profit Margin = (Gross Development Profit / Property Value (Going in Cap Rate)) * 100
Gross Development Profit Margin = ($4,285,714 / $10,000,000) * 100
Gross Development Profit Margin ≈ 42.86%
So, the gross development profit margin (rounded to the nearest percent) for a going in cap rate of 10 and a selling cap rate of 7, with a stabilized NOI of $1,000,000, is approximately 43%.
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in what way has american eating habits changed that will effect a barbecue sauce manaufacturer
Over the years, American eating habits have shifted towards healthier options with a focus on clean labels, reduced sugar, and natural ingredients.
This trend has caused a decline in the consumption of traditional barbecue sauces, which are often high in sugar and artificial ingredients. Barbecue sauce manufacturers can adapt to these changes by offering healthier options such as organic or low-sugar sauces, or by incorporating natural ingredients into their products. It is also important for manufacturers to highlight the nutritional value of their products and promote their use in healthier cooking options, such as marinades or as a dip for grilled vegetables.
Ultimately, adapting to the changing American eating habits can help barbecue sauce manufacturers stay relevant and meet the demands of health-conscious consumers.
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A discriminating monopsonist willa.pay all workers the market equilibrium wage.b.pay the last worker hired the market equilibrium wage.c.pay all workers a wage equal to their value of marginal product.d.have lower employer surplus than an employer in a competitive labor market.
A discriminating monopsonist is an employer who has the power to set wages in a labor market and pays workers different wages based on their individual marginal productivity. Here, monopsonist will pay all workers a wage equal to value of marginal product. Thus Correct answer is option C
In contrast to options (a) and (b), a discriminating monopsonist does not pay all workers the market equilibrium wage or just the last worker hired at this rate. Instead, they differentiate wages according to each worker's productivity. This wage-setting strategy allows the monopsonist to maximize profits, as they do not overpay or underpay workers relative to their contributions.
Option (d) suggests that a discriminating monopsonist has lower employer surplus than an employer in a competitive labor market. This is incorrect, as a monopsonist typically has more employer surplus due to their market power. They can set wages at a level that maximizes profits, while competitive market employers must pay the equilibrium wage determined by supply and demand forces.
In summary, a discriminating monopsonist pays workers a wage equal to their value of marginal product, allowing the employer to maximize profits and maintain a higher employer surplus than they would have in a competitive labor market. Correct answer is option C
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If the price of Sperry shoes goes up from $100 to $120 and the quantity supplied increases from 800 to 900 pairs.
It would increase by .163.
It would increase by 0.625.
It would increase by 0.750.
It would decrease by .163.
If the price of Sperry shoes goes up from $100 to $120 and the quantity supplied increases from 800 to 900 pairs, the price would increase by 0.625. Therefore, the correct option is option 2.
To determine the increase in the price of Sperry shoes and the change in quantity supplied, we'll use the concept of price elasticity of supply.
We can follow these steps to determine the price increase:1. Calculate the percentage change in price:
((New Price - Old Price) / Old Price) * 100
((120 - 100) / 100) * 100 = 20%
2. Calculate the percentage change in quantity supplied:
((New Quantity - Old Quantity) / Old Quantity) * 100
((900 - 800) / 800) * 100 = 12.5%
3. Calculate the price elasticity of supply:
(Percentage Change in Quantity Supplied) / (Percentage Change in Price)
(12.5% / 20%) = 0.625
So, the price elasticity of supply would increase by 0.625 which corresponds to option 2.
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Doug files a suit in Illinois against Beth over the ownership of a boat docked in Illinois. Doug and Beth are residents of New York. Beth could ask for a change of venue on the ground that New York
a. has sufficient minimum contacts with the parties.
b. has a sufficient stake in the matter.
c. has jurisdiction.
d. is a more convenient location to hold the trial.
Beth could ask for a change of venue on the ground that New York is a more convenient location to hold the trial.
So, the correct answer is D.
Your question pertains to a legal scenario where Doug files a suit in Illinois against Beth over boat ownership, and both are residents of New York. In this case, Beth could ask for a change of venue on the ground that New York is a more convenient location to hold the trial.
This is because both parties are residents of New York, making it more practical and convenient to hold the trial in their home state.
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1. Assume Towne Center Art Museum (which has a December 31st year end) received the following contributions in 2017. Prepare journal entries to record these events and any year-end adjusting journal entries resulting from the events.
a. Unrestricted pledges of support were received in the amount of $280,000. All of these are due within the year and it is estimated that 6% will ultimately prove to be uncollectible.
b. 600 Memberships were sold to the public in the amount of $40 each. Membership provides the individual with a monthly magazine and other benefits. The estimated fair value of member benefits is $15. The member year runs from July 1 to June 30.
c. A local carpenter donated supplies and labor with values of $25,000 and $20,000 (respectively) to construct a new exhibition area. Fixed assets are classified as unrestricted net assets.
d. On April 1, 2017, a local businessman made a pledge payable in a future period. The pledge is restricted in purpose and has a present value of $105,000 (effective interest rate of 6%).
2. FASB Statement 136 Transfer of Assets to a Not-for-Profit Organization or Charitable Trust that Raises or Holds Contributions for Others provides guidance on how intermediary recipient organizations should record receipt of resources held for others. Briefly describe the issue and how such transfers should be recorded.
a. To record the receipt of unrestricted pledges of support:
Dr. Cash $262,400 ($280,000 x 94%)
Cr. Unrestricted Support $262,400
To record the estimated uncollectible amount:
Dr. Bad Debt Expense $17,600 ($280,000 x 6%)
Cr. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $17,600
b. To record the sale of memberships:
Dr. Cash $24,000 (600 x $40)
Cr. Unrestricted Support $9,000 (600 x $15)
Cr. Deferred Revenue $15,000 (600 x ($40-$15))
c. To record the donation of supplies and labor:
Dr. Exhibition Area Construction $45,000 ($25,000 + $20,000)
Cr. Unrestricted Support $45,000
d Dr. Pledge Receivable $105,000
Cr. Contribution Revenue - Restricted $105,000
To record the present value adjustment:
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Computing LIFO Liquidation Heiden Inc. accounts for inventory using the LIFO inventory method. Beginning inventory on January 1 consists of 10,000 units at a cost of $5 per unit. During the year, the company sold more items than purchased, causing the ending inventory balance on December 31, 2020, to drop to 7,500 units. Assuming a tax rate of 40%, and a current replacement cost of inventory of 58 per unit, what is the LIFO liquidation effect on pretax and after-tax income? LIFO liquidation effect on pretax income
LIFO liquidation effect on after-tax incomes
The LIFO liquidation effect on pretax income and after-tax income for Heiden Inc. can be calculated as follows:
First, we need to determine the number of units liquidated: 10,000 (beginning inventory) - 7,500 (ending inventory) = 2,500 units.
Next, we calculate the cost difference between the LIFO cost and the current replacement cost: $58 (current replacement cost) - $5 (LIFO cost) = $53 per unit.
Now, we can find the LIFO liquidation effect on pretax income: 2,500 units * $53 per unit = $132,500.
To calculate the LIFO liquidation effect on after-tax income, we need to consider the tax rate: $132,500 * (1 - 40%) = $132,500 * 0.6 = $79,500.
So, the LIFO liquidation effect on pretax income is $132,500, and the LIFO liquidation effect on after-tax income is $79,500.
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Joe Reese is the accountant for Lawn Boyz Lawnservice, Inc. During the month, numerous payments were made for wages, for which he was properly debiting the Wage Expense account and crediting Cash. Joe became concerned that if he kept debiting the Wage Expense account, it would end up with a balance much higher than any of the other expense accounts. Accordingly, he began debiting other expense accounts for some of the wage payments, thus "spreading the expenses around" to other expense accounts. When he was done posting all the journal entries to the ledger accounts, he printed a trial balance. He saw that the Wage Expense balance was $42,000 and the total of all the other expense accounts was $26,000. Had he properly posted all the wage expense transactions, Wage Expense would have totaled $54,000 and the other expense accounts would have totaled $14,000. Joe reasoned that his actions provided for "more balanced" expense account totals and, regardless of his postings, the total expenses were still $68,000, so the overall net income would be the same. Are Joe's actions justified? Do they cause any ethical concerns? If you were the owner of Lawn Boyz Lawnservice, Inc., would you have a problem with what Joe did?
Joe's actions are not justified due to violation of GAAP. They cause ethical concerns like honesty and integrity. If I were the owner of Lawn Boyz Lawnservice, Inc., I would have a problem with what Joe did because Joe's actions undermine the trust and accuracy of the financial records, which can have long-term negative effects on your business
Joe's actions of spreading the wage expenses across other expense accounts are not justified. This is a clear violation of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), which require expenses to be properly recorded in the correct expense account. Joe's actions misrepresent the company's financial statements and could potentially mislead investors or other stakeholders.
From an ethical standpoint, Joe's actions raise concerns about honesty and integrity. By intentionally misclassifying expenses, he is not acting in the best interest of the company or its stakeholders.
If I were the owner of Lawn Boyz Lawnservice, Inc., I would have a problem with what Joe did. As the owner, it is my responsibility to ensure that financial statements are accurate and reliable. Joe's actions undermine the trust and confidence in the financial statements and could lead to legal or financial repercussions.
I would take appropriate disciplinary action and ensure that proper accounting procedures are followed in the future to prevent similar incidents from happening.
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Wolfgang Puck, the famous TV chef, licenses his name to just about everything food-related, even stuff that’s of terrible quality. This is a classic example of __________. a. Brand dilution b. Brand extension c. Brand equity d. Brand licensing
d. Brand licensing
Brand licensing refers to the practice of extending an established brand name or trademark to other products or services through licensing agreements.
In this case, Wolfgang Puck's brand name is being licensed to various food-related products, regardless of their quality.
Brand licensing allows a brand owner to leverage the recognition, reputation, and popularity of their brand to generate additional revenue streams by granting others the right to use their brand name in association with different products or services.
However, it's important to note that brand licensing also carries risks, such as potential brand dilution if the licensed products or services do not meet the brand's quality standards.
Brand dilution occurs when a brand's reputation and value are weakened due to the association with inferior or inconsistent products, which can negatively impact the brand's equity or overall perception in the market.
Options a, b, and c are not the correct answers in this context:
a. Brand dilution: Brand dilution refers to the weakening or diminishing of a brand's reputation or value due to various factors, such as inconsistent product quality, over-extension of the brand into unrelated markets, or negative associations.
While brand dilution could be a potential risk in the given scenario, the correct term to describe the situation is brand licensing.
b. Brand extension: Brand extension refers to the practice of leveraging an established brand name or trademark to launch new products or services in related or unrelated markets.
In this case, if Wolfgang Puck were to launch new food-related products under his existing brand name, it would be considered a brand extension.
However, the given scenario describes the licensing of his brand name to other products, rather than launching new products under the same brand name.
c. Brand equity: Brand equity refers to the overall value and perception of a brand in the market, including its recognition, reputation, customer loyalty, and financial worth.
While brand equity may be relevant in the context of licensing a brand name, the correct term to describe the situation in the given scenario is brand licensing,
as it specifically pertains to the practice of granting others the right to use a brand name in association with different products or services.
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Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false. Double taxation refers to the fact that both a partnership and its partners must pay income tax on a) the earnings of the partnership. b) A sole proprietorship is an accounting entity separate from its owner. c) Limited liability is a benefit to both corporations and partnerships, but not to sole proprietorships Unlike a partnership, a corporation is not terminated when a major stockholder withdraws his or d) her investment. e) Sole proprietorships are, generally, subject to fewer governmental regulations than corporations.
True - Partnerships are not taxed as a separate entity, False, False, True - A corporation is a separate legal entity from its shareholders, True - Sole proprietorships are generally subject to fewer governmental regulations than corporations,
a) True - Partnerships are not taxed as a separate entity, so the earnings are taxed as personal income for each partner, resulting in double taxation. b) False - A sole proprietorship is not a separate legal entity from its owner, and therefore, it is not separate for accounting purposes. c) False - Limited liability is a benefit to corporations and limited liability partnerships, but not to general partnerships or sole proprietorships. Sole proprietors are personally liable for all debts and legal issues related to their business. d) True - A corporation is a separate legal entity from its shareholders, and therefore, the withdrawal of one major stockholder does not result in the termination of the corporation. e) True - Sole proprietorships are generally subject to fewer governmental regulations than corporations, which are subject to more stringent regulations due to their separate legal status. However, some industries may have specific regulations that apply to sole proprietorships.
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2. A real estate licensee failed to renew his license within the two-year renewal cycle. If his license has been involuntary inactive for only 6 months, what must he do to renew the license? A. Complete the required 14-hour continuing education, pay the renewal fee, and pay a late fee B. Complete the 28-hour reactivation course, pay the renewal fee, and pay a late fee C. Retake the pre-licensing education, pay an application fee, and retake and pass the state exam D. Pay the renewal fee and apply for license reactivation
Option B is the correct answer.
Since the real estate licensee's license has been involuntary inactive for only 6 months, he must complete the 28-hour reactivation course, pay the renewal fee, and pay a late fee to renew his license.
What must he do to renew the license?
Option B is the correct answer.
Since the real estate licensee's license has been involuntary inactive for only 6 months, he must complete the 28-hour reactivation course, pay the renewal fee, and pay a late fee to renew his license.
Option A is for those who have an active license but failed to renew it within the two-year cycle.
Option C is for those who have let their license expire for more than two years.
Option D is not applicable as the licensee's license has been inactive for more than 90 days, which requires completion of the reactivation course.
So the correct option is B.
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The three competitive factors that impact only Internet sales and market share in a region includeA company expenditures for merchandising support paid to third-party online retailers.B the amount the company spends in a given year for special styling and performance features for newly-produced footwear models only sold online.C the S/Q rating of the branded footwear being sold at each company's regional websites.D the celebrity appeal ratings of the celebrities who are under contract to endorse a company's branded footwear via videos, pictures, and commentary posted prominently at numerous locations on the company's regional websites.E the average retail price each company charges at its regional websites and whether a company offers free shipping or requires customer paid shipping.
The three competitive factors that impact only Internet sales and market share in a region include:
1. The average retail price each company charges at its regional websites and whether a company offers free shipping or requires customer paid shipping.
This factor is important as it directly affects the consumer's decision to purchase from a particular website. Customers are often drawn to websites that offer competitive prices and free shipping.
2. Company expenditures for merchandising support paid to third-party online retailers. This factor refers to the amount of money a company spends on advertising and promoting its products on third-party websites.
The more a company invests in advertising, the more likely it is to attract potential customers to its own website.
3. The S/Q rating of the branded footwear being sold at each company's regional websites. S/Q rating refers to the style and quality of the products being sold. Customers are more likely to purchase from websites that offer high-quality, stylish products that meet their needs and preferences.
It is important for companies to consider these factors when competing in the online marketplace as they can significantly impact a company's sales and market share.
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Stock warrants outstanding should be classified as
Select one:
a. liabilities
b. reductions of capital contributed in excess of par value.
c. assets.
d. Paid-in capital-stock warrants
Stock warrants outstanding should be classified as Paid-in capital-stock warrants. The correct answer in (D)
This is because stock warrants are a type of financial instrument that gives the holder the right to purchase stock at a predetermined price within a certain time frame. This right is considered a form of equity and is typically issued as part of a company's capital raising efforts.
As a result, stock warrants outstanding are recorded in the equity section of the balance sheet under the paid-in capital account.
It is important to note that stock warrants outstanding do not represent a reduction of capital contributed in excess of par value, as this typically refers to the difference between the price at which a company issues stock and its par value.
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economists who challenge the assumption that people are rational utility maximizers are known as:
a) Keynesian economists.
b) monetarists.
c) behavioral economists.
d) supply-siders.
Answer: (C) Behavioral Economists
Explanation:
What is Behavioral Economics? Behavioral Economics is the study of psychology of an individual or firm as it relates to the economic decision-making processes. Behavioral economics is often related with normative economics (focusing on vale based judgement). It draws on psychology and economics to explore why people sometimes make irrational decisions, and why and how their behavior does not follow the predictions of economic models. It is influenced by bounded rationality, an architecture of choices, cognitive biases, and group mentality. Companies use these studies to cater to their business activities.
Economists who challenge the assumption that people are rational utility maximizers are known as behavioral economists. They believe that people's decision-making is influenced by psychological, emotional, and social factors that can lead to biases and deviations from rationality.
The perspective used by behavioral economists is in contrast to the traditional economic theory that assumes individuals always act in their own self-interest to maximize their utility. While Keynesian economists focus on the role of government intervention in stabilizing the economy, monetarists emphasize the importance of monetary policy in controlling inflation and promoting economic growth, and supply-siders advocate for policies that promote incentives for businesses to invest and create jobs.
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the third step in the factor-comparison method for job evaluation is
The third step in the factor-comparison method for job evaluation is the comparison of each job's factors. In this step, you'll compare the different factors of each job (such as skills, responsibilities, and working conditions) to determine their relative importance and establish a hierarchy each position. jobs based on their value to the organization. This helps in the overall evaluation and fair compensation
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The third step in the factor-comparison method for job evaluation is the comparison of each job's factors. In this step, you'll compare the different factors of each job (such as skills, responsibilities, and working conditions) to determine their relative importance and establish a hierarchy each position. jobs based on their value to the organization. This helps in the overall evaluation and fair compensation
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If a monopoly took over a viable perfectly competitive industry the firm would produce - a smaller output at a higher price.- the same output at a higher price. - a smaller output at the same price. - the same output at the same price.
If a monopoly were to take over a perfectly competitive industry, the firm would most likely produce the same output at a higher price.
If a monopoly were to take over a perfectly competitive industry, the firm would most likely produce the same output at a higher price. This is because monopolies have the ability to control the market and set their own prices, without any competition to drive them down. In contrast, in a competitive industry, firms must sell their products at the same price as their competitors in order to remain competitive. Thus, a monopoly would have the power to raise prices and still maintain their market share, resulting in the same output being produced but at a higher cost to consumers.
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What is the cost of preferred stock for XZY, Inc.Dividend = $5 per sharePrice of preferred stock = $55Flotation cost = $3 per shareQuestion 3 options:a) 10.26%b) 9.32%c) 10.62%d) 9.62%
the cost of preferred stock for XYZ, Inc. is 3.09%.
None of the given options match this answer, so the correct answer is not provided.
The cost of preferred stock for XYZ, Inc. can be calculated using the following formula:
Cost of preferred stock = (Dividend / Share price) + Flotation cost
Substituting the given values:
Cost of preferred stock = ($5 / $55) + $3
Cost of preferred stock = 0.0909 + $3
Cost of preferred stock = $3.0909
Converting this into a percentage:
Cost of preferred stock = 3.0909 / 100
Cost of preferred stock = 0.0309
Therefore, the cost of preferred stock for XYZ, Inc. is 3.09%.
None of the given options match this answer, so the correct answer is not provided.
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grouping small inbound loads into larger loads is called mixing/creating assortments. True or False?
True.
Grouping small inbound loads into larger loads is indeed called mixing or creating assortments.
Tell weather the statement is correct or not?
Grouping small inbound loads into larger loads is called mixing/creating assortments. True or False?
Your answer: True.
Grouping small inbound loads into larger loads is indeed called mixing or creating assortments. This process helps in consolidating shipments, improving efficiency, and reducing transportation costs.
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A future uncertain project has known information, such as activities involved, activity relationshipsand each activity's expected finish time and variance. Which one of the following information isneeded in order to determine a reasonable project deadline, so that the probability that the projectcan be finished before the deadline is at least a certain probability p?a.normsdist(z)b.normsinv(p)c.normsdist(p)d.normsinv(z)
To determine a reasonable project deadline with a certain probability p of finishing before the deadline, given the known information like activities, activity relationships, expected finish time, and variance, you should use the formula: b. normsinv(p).
Normsinv(p) is used to find the z-score that corresponds to a given probability p. In this case, we need to determine a reasonable project deadline such that the probability of finishing the project before the deadline is at least a certain probability p.
By using normsinv(p), we can find the corresponding z-score and use it to calculate the deadline using the formula:
Deadline = expected finish time + (z-score * square root of variance)
This will give us a reasonable project deadline that has a certain probability of being met.
Therefore, to determine a reasonable project deadline with a probability p of finishing before the deadline, you should use b.normsinv(p). This function calculates the inverse of the standard normal cumulative distribution for a given probability p, which helps you establish the appropriate deadline for the project.
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assume for a competitive firm that mc = avc at $10, mc = atc at $14.50, and mc = mr at $17. this firm will:
A. minimize its losses by producing in the short run.
B. shut down in the short run.
C. realize a profit of $5 per unit of output.
D. maximize its profit by producing in the short run.
Based on the information for a competitive firm, this firm will minimize its losses by producing in the short run. Therefore, the correct option is A.
The given information is MC = AVC at $10, MC = ATC at $14.50, and MC = MR at $17.
Based on this information, we can determine the firm's situation as follows:1. Compare MC and MR:
MC = MR at $17.
This is the point where the firm maximizes its profit or minimizes its losses.
2. Compare the MR with the AVC and ATC:
Since MR ($17) is greater than AVC ($10), the firm will continue to produce in the short run to cover its variable costs and contribute to its fixed costs.
However, since MR ($17) is less than ATC ($14.50), the firm is not able to cover all its costs and will incur a loss in the short run.
Based on these comparisons, the correct answer is option A: minimize its losses by producing in the short run.
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The table shows the price and quantity demanded for exercise balls. Using the Midpoint Method, what is the price elasticity of demand between points B and C?Point Price QuantityA $30 10,000B $32 9,900C $34 9,800D $36 9,700E $38 9,60
The price elasticity of demand between points B and C is 0.167.
The price elasticity of demand using the Midpoint Method between points B and C.
To calculate the price elasticity of demand between points B and C, we will use the following formula:
Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) = (% Change in Quantity Demanded) / (% Change in Price)
First, we need to calculate the percentage changes in both quantity demanded and price.
For quantity demanded:
1. Find the difference between quantities at points B and C: 9,900 - 9,800 = 100
2. Calculate the average quantity: (9,900 + 9,800) / 2 = 9,850
3. Calculate the percentage change in quantity demanded: (100 / 9,850) x 100 = 1.015%
For price:
1. Find the difference between prices at points B and C: $34 - $32 = $2
2. Calculate the average price: ($32 + $34) / 2 = $33
3. Calculate the percentage change in price: (2 / 33) x 100 = 6.061%
Now, apply the Midpoint Method formula:
Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) = (1.015% / 6.061%) = 0.167
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Performance measures are only useful if they are objective; subjective performance review measures are a waste of time for managers
Select one:
a. True
b. False
The given statement is false because performance measures can be both objective and subjective. The correct option is B.
While objective performance measures can provide valuable insight into an employee's performance, subjective performance measures are also important. They allow managers to take into account intangible factors such as communication skills, leadership abilities, and teamwork.
Subjective performance measures can also be used to evaluate soft skills such as emotional intelligence, which can have a significant impact on an employee's success in the workplace. However, it is important for managers to establish clear evaluation criteria and use consistent standards when evaluating subjective measures to ensure fairness and avoid bias.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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The Fitness Studio, Inc.’s, 2021 income statement lists the following income and expenses: EBITDA = $929,000, EBIT = $775,000, interest expense = $106,000, and taxes = $234,150. The firm has no preferred stock outstanding and 100,000 shares of common stock outstanding.Calculate the 2021 earnings per share?
The 2021 earnings per share for The Fitness Studio, Inc. is $4.35.
What is earnings?
To calculate the earnings per share (EPS), we need to first calculate the net income, which is equal to EBIT minus interest expense minus taxes:
Net income = EBIT - Interest expense - Taxes
Net income = $775,000 - $106,000 - $234,150
Net income = $434,850
Next, we can calculate the EPS by dividing the net income by the number of shares outstanding:
EPS = Net income / Number of shares outstanding
EPS = $434,850 / 100,000
EPS = $4.35
Therefore, the 2021 earnings per share for The Fitness Studio, Inc. is $4.35.
What is an EPS?
EPS stands for "Earnings Per Share". It is a financial ratio that measures the amount of a company's net income that is attributable to each share of its common stock outstanding. EPS is calculated by dividing the net income of the company by the number of shares of common stock outstanding. EPS is a key metric used by investors and analysts to evaluate the profitability and financial performance of a company, and to compare it with other companies in the same industry.
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Lacey works for a promotional consultant who develops sweepstakes, games, coupons, and rebate plans for various marketers. Lacey is developing which of the following?
a. Personal selling techniques
b. Advertising techniques
c. Direct marketing techniques
d. Publicity examples
e. Sales promotion techniques
Lacey is developing sales promotion techniques, specifically sweepstakes, games, coupons, and rebate plans.
Sales promotion techniques are used to incentivize customers to make a purchase or take a desired action, and these specific tactics are all examples of sales promotion.
A transitory campaign or offer is used by a company as part of a sales promotion to raise interest or demand in its product or service.
A company may decide to utilise a sales promotion (or "promo") for a variety of reasons, but the main one is to increase sales. Sales increases could be required to meet a quota as a deadline draws near or to spread word of a new product.
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Assume a firm has earnings before depreciation and taxes of $520,000 and depreciation of $220,000. a. If it is in a 30 percent tax bracket, compute its cash flow. Cash flow b. If it is in a 15 percent tax bracket, compute its cash flow. Cash flow
A) If it is in a 30 percent tax bracket, the cash flow of the firm would be $364,000, b) If it is in a 15 percent tax bracket, the cash flow of the firm would be $414,000.
What is cash flow?Cash flow is the net amount of cash and cash-equivalents being transferred into and out of a business. It is the difference between income and expenses over a certain period of time.
a. This is calculated by subtracting the depreciation of $220,000 from the earnings before depreciation and taxes of $520,000, and then further subtracting the taxes of 30% of $520,000, which is equal to $156,000.
b. If it is in a 15 percent tax bracket, the cash flow of the firm would be $414,000. This is calculated by subtracting the depreciation of $220,000 from the earnings before depreciation and taxes of $520,000, and then further subtracting the taxes of 15% of $520,000, which is equal to $78,000.
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sold merchandise inventory to kourtney wadia, $1,800, on account. ignore cost of goods sold.
You sold merchandise inventory to Kourtney Wadia for $1,800 on account, and we'll ignore the cost of goods sold. To record this transaction, you need to follow these steps:
1. Debit the Accounts Receivable account for $1,800: This increases the amount owed by Kourtney Wadia, as she has purchased the merchandise on account (i.e., on credit).
2. Credit the Sales Revenue account for $1,800: This reflects the revenue earned from selling the merchandise inventory to Kourtney Wadia.
By following these steps, you have accurately recorded the transaction of selling merchandise inventory to Kourtney Wadia for $1,800 on account while ignoring the cost of goods sold.
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After you compose your message, you need to proofread. You don’t want to spend a lot of time composing the message and then have the reader misunderstand it because of poor grammar or punctuation.
What questions should you ask yourself when proofreading? Check all that apply.
Did I check for inaccuracies?
Have I followed standard formatting guidelines?
Should I send a letter or an e-mail?
Are my introductory clauses followed by a comma?
Determine the problem in the following sentence.
Everyone must learn how to work their new computer.
Grammar
Punctuation
Names and numbers
Read the scenario, and then answer the question.
You are preparing to proof a recommendation report for the executive team. Your HR team has worked on this report for several months, and the report is 179 pages long. You know the executive team demands excellence, and you want to impress them.
Which of the following proofreading strategies would be most appropriate for this situation?
Design your own proofreading marks that are specific to the recommendation report you are working on.
Print a double-spaced copy of the report body, read the message at least twice, and enlist a proofreading buddy.
Proof electronically, using the down arrow to reveal one line at a time as you look for misspellings and small mistakes.
Which of the following items should be on your revision checklist? Check all that apply.
Rescue buried verbs.
Write concisely for microblogging.
Proofread for correctness.
Keep the message simple.
Avoid trite business phrases.
The problem in the given sentence is grammar (the correct pronoun to use is "his or her" instead of "their"). The most appropriate proofreading strategy for the given scenario is to print a double-spaced copy of the report body, read the message at least twice, and enlist a proofreading buddy.
The items that should be on your revision checklist include: Rescuing buried verbs, Proofread for correctness, Keeping the message simple, and Avoid trite business phrases. When proofreading your message, you should ask yourself the following questions:
1. Did I check for inaccuracies?
2. Have I followed standard formatting guidelines, such as using double-spacing?
3. Are my introductory clauses followed by a comma?
In the sentence "Everyone must learn how to work their new computer," the problem is grammar, as it should be "Everyone must learn how to work with their new computer."
For proofreading a 179-page recommendation report, the most appropriate strategy would be to print a double-spaced copy of the report body, read the message at least twice, and enlist a proofreading buddy to ensure accuracy and proper revision.
Items that should be on your revision checklist include:
1. Rescue buried verbs.
2. Proofread for correctness.
3. Keep the message simple.
4. Avoid trite business phrases.
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Southeastern College began the year with endowment investments of $1,200,000 and $700,000 of restricted cash designated by a donor for capital additions.
During the year an additional $500,000 donation was received for capital additions. These funds, together with those contributed in the prior year, were used to purchase 150 acres of land adjacent to the university.
An alum contributed $200,000 to the permanent endowment and pledged to provide an additional $400,000 early next year. The cash was immediately invested.
By terms of the endowment agreement, interest and dividends received on the investments are restricted for scholarships. Gains or losses from changes in the fair value of the investments, however, are not distributed but remain in the endowment. During the year, $48,000 of interest and dividends were received on endowment investments.
At year-end, the fair value of the investments had increased by $7,000.
Required:
Prepare journal entries to record the above transactions assuming:
a. Southeastern College is a public university.
b. Southeastern College is a private university.
Southeastern College began the year with University records endowment investments should be entered in the journal; otherwise, no entry would be made until the commitment was received by the institution.
A fixed unit of data in any format that records a decision, action, or dating taken by the university is referred to as a college report. $1,200,000 and $700,000 of restricted cash designated by a donor for capital additions.
a detailed report in writing of all actions and court appearances in a litigation. A written memorial submitted by a public official who is legally permitted to carry out the task is meant to serve as evidence of what was said or done. Statistics demonstrate what the academic record does. They record all of its commercial dealings and transactions as well as employee files, business communication, settlement negotiations, and financial statements, to name a few.
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The par value per share of Tesla's stock is (Hint: Please see the Balance Sheet)(A) 10 cents (B) $1 (C) 1 cent (D) $10 (E) less than 1 cent
The par value per share of Tesla's stock is (E) less than 1 cent.
Par value is the nominal or face value of a stock, which is determined by the company and printed on the stock certificate. It represents the minimum amount that a shareholder must pay to purchase a share of stock. Par value has no direct relationship with the market price of the stock, which is determined by supply and demand in the stock market.
In the case of Tesla, the par value per share is less than 1 cent, which means that the company has set a very low minimum price for its shares. This is not uncommon for modern companies, as par value has lost much of its significance in modern securities markets. The par value is usually set low to avoid legal and administrative complexities associated with a higher par value.
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of employing a multiple products, multiple market segments strategy if NOT implemented well?A. higher sales but lower profitsB. reduced quality and higher pricesC. meeting customer needs but at the expense of higher pricesD. lower prices but with higher production costsE. higher quality but lower prices
The disadvantage of employing multiple products, multiple market segments strategy if NOT implemented well is meeting customer needs but at the expense of higher prices (option C).
This is because if the strategy is not executed effectively, it can lead to inefficiencies in production and marketing, which can drive up costs and ultimately result in higher prices for customers. This can make the products less competitive in the market, and result in lower sales and profits for the company.
Also, managing multiple products and markets can lead to a lack of focus, resulting in compromised quality and increased prices for consumers.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C. it becomes necessary to meet customer needs but at the expense of higher prices in order to sustain multiple products and multiple market segments.
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