what is the inverse operations of -5x + 10 = 40

Answer:

2.52

Step-by-step explanation:

5x + 15.5 = 28.1

subtract 15.5 from both sides

5x = 12.6

divide both sides by 5

x = 2.52

Answer:

x=2.52

Step-by-step explanation:

28.1 = 15.5 + 5x

(take 15.5 from both sides)

28.1-15.5=15.5-15.5+5x

12.6=5x

(Divide both sides by 5)

12.6/5=5x/5

2.52=x

Answer:

B)  50

Step-by-step explanation:

min = 38

quartile 1 = 45

median = 50

quartile 3 = 67

maximum = 75

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

As you know 8 & 8

= 16

and there's 16 dots in all.

So 8% Of 16%

Would lead to 50%

P.S: Sorry if I'm wrong I tried my best. Best wishes!!! And here's some sparkles ✨ (◍•ᴗ•◍)✧*。!!!

Answer:

Yes, because the area of one side of the divider is approximately 24ft^2

Answer:

yes 24 squared

Step-by-step explanation:

Math Nation

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

it's done by pythagoreans theorem

√25-9=4

The method to find the interquartile range is (b) Find the difference between the upper and lower quartiles.

The interquartile range of a set of data is the difference between the upper quartile and the lower quartile of the dataset

Using the above definition, we can calculate the interquartile range by:

IQR = Q3 - Q1

Hence, the method to find the interquartile range is (b) Find the difference between the upper and lower quartiles.

Read more about interquartile range at:

https://brainly.com/question/1509868

Answer:

B. Find the difference between the upper and lower quartiles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Verified answer ✔️

Answer:

256 ft^2

Step-by-step explanation:

area of rhombus = half of the product of the diagonals

diagonal 1 = 2 * 12.8 ft = 25.6 ft

diagonal 2 = 2 * 10 ft = 20 ft

area = d1 * d2/2 = 12.8 ft * 20 ft/2 = 256 ft^2

Answer:

nonreal of course......

Answer: -2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

c=p-2a-2b

Step-by-step explanation:

P=2a+2b+c

-c=-p+2a+2b  divide both sides by -1

c=p-2a-2b

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

11 1/4 divided by 3= 3.75 (3 3/4)

Answer:

d) [tex]3\frac{3}{4}[/tex] pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi there!

What we know:

- Sarah has [tex]11 \frac{1}{4}[/tex] pounds of dog food

- Sarah is dividing this into 3 containers

1) Convert [tex]11 \frac{1}{4}[/tex] into an improper fraction

[tex]11 \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Multiply the whole number by the denominator

11 × 4 = 44

Add 44 to the numerator

44 + 1 = 45

[tex]\frac{45}{4}[/tex]

2) Divide [tex]\frac{45}{4}[/tex] by 3

[tex]\frac{45}{4} / 3[/tex]

Dividing by a number is the same as multiplying its reciprocal

[tex]= \frac{45}{4} *\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Multiply the numerators and the denominators

[tex]45*1 = 45\\4*3 = 12[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{45}{12}[/tex]

3) Convert [tex]\frac{45}{12}[/tex] into a mixed number fraction

[tex]\frac{45}{12}[/tex] ⇒ [tex]3\frac{3}{4}[/tex]

Therefore, there will be [tex]3\frac{3}{4}[/tex] pounds of food in each container.

I hope this helps!

Answer:

a) The probability of a tie is the probability of getting the same outcome in both dice.

First, we roll die A and we get a given outcome. (here the probability is 1 because there is no restriction)

Now we need to roll die B and get the same outcome, so here we have only one possible outcome out of 6, then in this case the probability is 1/6

The joint probability (the product of the individual probabilities) is: P =  1*(1/6) = 1/6

b) We want to find the probability that die A wins.

Here we need to analyze each possible outcome for die A.

Let's define:

pₙ = probability of winning given that the outcome is n.

If the outcome is a 1, die A can only lose or tie, then here:

p₁ = 0

If the outcome is a 2, then die A only wins if die B rolls a 1, (1 outcome out of 6)

Then the probability of winning is:

p₂ = 1/6

If the outcome is a 3, then die A wins if die B rolls a 1 or a 2, here we have two possible outcomes out of 6.

p₃ = 2/6

We already can see the pattern, if the outcome is a 4, we get:

p₄ = 3/6

if the outcome is a 5:

p₅ = 4/6

if the outcome is a 6:

p₆ = 5/6

The total probability is the sum of all the joint probabilities:

For each roll in dice A, the probability is 1/6 (the probability of getting a given outcome)

Then the probability that die A wins is:

P = (1/6)*p₁ + (1/6)*p₂ + ... = (1/6)*(p₁ + p₂ + p₃ + p₄ + p₅ + p₆)

P = (1/6)*(0 + 1/6 + 2/6 + 3/6 + 4/6 + 5/6)

P = (1/6)*(15/6) = 0.4167

Answer:

(4,-6)  

Step-by-step explanation:

1) First, let's find the slope of the line between the two points. Use the slope formula [tex]m = \frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}[/tex], substitute the x and y values of (-2,9) and (2,-1) into it, then solve:

[tex]m = \frac{(-1)-(9)}{(2)-(-2)}\\m = \frac{-1-9}{2+2} \\m =\frac{-10}{4} \\m = -\frac{5}{2}[/tex]

So, the slope of the line is [tex]-\frac{5}{2}[/tex].

2) Now, using that slope, let's find another point on the line. You can do this by drawing the two points on a graph (picture below). Now, remember that the slope is [tex]\frac{rise}{run}[/tex]. So, starting from any of the two points (I chose (2,-1), as seen below) count 5 units down, then 2 units to the right. This gives an answer, (4,-6).

Answer:

In figure 1 value of y is 1

In figure 2 value of y is 6

In figure 3 value of y is 5

[tex] \\ [/tex]

Answer:

35 is the answer i just did the lesson :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

70 inches^2

Step-by-step explanation:

7x10=70

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Miami rainfall:  1.61 +2.24 +2.99 +3.15 +5.35 + 9.68 = 25.02

Tampa rainfall: 2.24 +2.8 +3.03 + 2.05 + 2.09 + 6.69 = 18.9

25.02 - 18.9 = 6.12

Miami gets more rainfall by 6.12 more inches

Have a great day! :)

set up the ratios:

3/5 = x/15

Cross multiply:

45 = 5x

Divide both sides by 5:

X = 9

The model would be 9 inches long

Answer:

120ft

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  34.8

Step-by-step explanation:

The only polygon in the figure is the triangle outlined in red. Its perimeter is the sum of its side lengths: 15 +6.1 +13.7 = 34.8 units.

__

The two halves of the chord are the same length.

Answer:

if the X is equal and large than 5 The X would be 5 or the any numbers large than it :)

Answer:

y= -1/4x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I think the answer is n=32 because 8×4 is 32

Answer:

B. [tex]x^{M+N}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: =3x^3+5

Step-by-step explanation: Hope this help :D

Answer:

1086ft squared

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

answer is d.-3/2x +5

Step-by-step explanation:

this was tough but I did it. First you multiply all the terms with 1/4. Then just simplify the terms by breaking them down and then apply normal addition and subtraction. Simple. Thank you

Answer:

480 people are likely to select chocolate as their favorite flavor.

Step-by-step explanation:

32 out of 50 = 32/50 = 16/25

750 * 16/25 = 480