What’s the answer to 2 + 6 = ?

I don’t care what you say, this is just get one of you a Brainliest.

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

As you know 8 & 8

= 16

and there's 16 dots in all.

So 8% Of 16%

Would lead to 50%

P.S: Sorry if I'm wrong I tried my best. Best wishes!!! And here's some sparkles ✨ (◍•ᴗ•◍)✧*。!!!

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Miami rainfall:  1.61 +2.24 +2.99 +3.15 +5.35 + 9.68 = 25.02

Tampa rainfall: 2.24 +2.8 +3.03 + 2.05 + 2.09 + 6.69 = 18.9

25.02 - 18.9 = 6.12

Miami gets more rainfall by 6.12 more inches

Have a great day! :)

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  [tex]\left[\begin{array}{cc|c}-6&3&-4\\0&-3&11\end{array}\right][/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The designated sum can replace either row. Consult your curriculum materials for the intent.

Here, we'll replace row 2 with the sum.

  3(2, -2, 5) +(-6, 3, -4) = (3(2)-6, 3(-2)+3, 3(5)-4) = (0, -3, 11)

After the row operation replaces the second row, the augmented matrix is ...

  [tex]\left[\begin{array}{cc|c}-6&3&-4\\0&-3&11\end{array}\right][/tex]

Answer:

3(2, -2, 5) +(-6, 3, -4) = (3(2)-6, 3(-2)+3, 3(5)-4) = (0, -3, 11)

After the row operation replaces the second row, the augmented matrix is ...

  \begin{gathered}\left[\begin{array}{cc|c}-6&3&-4\\0&-3&11\end{array}\right]\end{gathered}[−603−3−411]

The method to find the interquartile range is (b) Find the difference between the upper and lower quartiles.

The interquartile range of a set of data is the difference between the upper quartile and the lower quartile of the dataset

Using the above definition, we can calculate the interquartile range by:

IQR = Q3 - Q1

Hence, the method to find the interquartile range is (b) Find the difference between the upper and lower quartiles.

Read more about interquartile range at:

https://brainly.com/question/1509868

Answer:

B. Find the difference between the upper and lower quartiles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Verified answer ✔️

Answer:

B. [tex]x^{M+N}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B)  50

Step-by-step explanation:

min = 38

quartile 1 = 45

median = 50

quartile 3 = 67

maximum = 75

Answer:

(4,-6)  

Step-by-step explanation:

1) First, let's find the slope of the line between the two points. Use the slope formula [tex]m = \frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}[/tex], substitute the x and y values of (-2,9) and (2,-1) into it, then solve:

[tex]m = \frac{(-1)-(9)}{(2)-(-2)}\\m = \frac{-1-9}{2+2} \\m =\frac{-10}{4} \\m = -\frac{5}{2}[/tex]

So, the slope of the line is [tex]-\frac{5}{2}[/tex].

2) Now, using that slope, let's find another point on the line. You can do this by drawing the two points on a graph (picture below). Now, remember that the slope is [tex]\frac{rise}{run}[/tex]. So, starting from any of the two points (I chose (2,-1), as seen below) count 5 units down, then 2 units to the right. This gives an answer, (4,-6).

Answer:Wasps with long wings are less likely to survive.

Step-by-step explanation:Because offsprings can happen is diffrent ways say a bird had a offsring that made it have one leg it wouldent sureive to the standers of a bird with 2 legs same goes for other animals sorry if there is some spelling misakes hope this helped:)

Answer:

256 ft^2

Step-by-step explanation:

area of rhombus = half of the product of the diagonals

diagonal 1 = 2 * 12.8 ft = 25.6 ft

diagonal 2 = 2 * 10 ft = 20 ft

area = d1 * d2/2 = 12.8 ft * 20 ft/2 = 256 ft^2

Answer:

side CB

Step-by-step explanation:

draw triangles ABC and ACD next to each other

The longer leg of the triangle ABC is CB, which corresponds with the longest leg of ACD, which is side CD

Answer:

corresponded side

CD=CD

AC=AB

AD=AC

Answer:

answer is d.-3/2x +5

Step-by-step explanation:

this was tough but I did it. First you multiply all the terms with 1/4. Then just simplify the terms by breaking them down and then apply normal addition and subtraction. Simple. Thank you

Answer:

Increasing Order:

34, 71, 269, 976, 16759, 49753, 796542

Decreasing Order:

796542, 49753, 16759, 976, 269, 71, 34

Answer:

Yes, because the area of one side of the divider is approximately 24ft^2

Answer:

yes 24 squared

Step-by-step explanation:

Math Nation

Answer:

c=p-2a-2b

Step-by-step explanation:

P=2a+2b+c

-c=-p+2a+2b  divide both sides by -1

c=p-2a-2b

Answer:

480 people are likely to select chocolate as their favorite flavor.

Step-by-step explanation:

32 out of 50 = 32/50 = 16/25

750 * 16/25 = 480

Answer:

nonreal of course......

Answer:

if the X is equal and large than 5 The X would be 5 or the any numbers large than it :)

Answer:

I think the answer is n=32 because 8×4 is 32

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

it's done by pythagoreans theorem

√25-9=4

Answer: -2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a) The probability of a tie is the probability of getting the same outcome in both dice.

First, we roll die A and we get a given outcome. (here the probability is 1 because there is no restriction)

Now we need to roll die B and get the same outcome, so here we have only one possible outcome out of 6, then in this case the probability is 1/6

The joint probability (the product of the individual probabilities) is: P =  1*(1/6) = 1/6

b) We want to find the probability that die A wins.

Here we need to analyze each possible outcome for die A.

Let's define:

pₙ = probability of winning given that the outcome is n.

If the outcome is a 1, die A can only lose or tie, then here:

p₁ = 0

If the outcome is a 2, then die A only wins if die B rolls a 1, (1 outcome out of 6)

Then the probability of winning is:

p₂ = 1/6

If the outcome is a 3, then die A wins if die B rolls a 1 or a 2, here we have two possible outcomes out of 6.

p₃ = 2/6

We already can see the pattern, if the outcome is a 4, we get:

p₄ = 3/6

if the outcome is a 5:

p₅ = 4/6

if the outcome is a 6:

p₆ = 5/6

The total probability is the sum of all the joint probabilities:

For each roll in dice A, the probability is 1/6 (the probability of getting a given outcome)

Then the probability that die A wins is:

P = (1/6)*p₁ + (1/6)*p₂ + ... = (1/6)*(p₁ + p₂ + p₃ + p₄ + p₅ + p₆)

P = (1/6)*(0 + 1/6 + 2/6 + 3/6 + 4/6 + 5/6)

P = (1/6)*(15/6) = 0.4167

Step-by-step explanation:

the sum of angle jnm and knp should be 90°

so (7x+2)+(10x+3)=17x+5=90

x=5

so angle knp is 53°

lnk is 90-53=37°

jnm is 37°

jnl js 180-37=143°

jnl is 37+90=127°

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

11 1/4 divided by 3= 3.75 (3 3/4)

Answer:

d) [tex]3\frac{3}{4}[/tex] pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi there!

What we know:

- Sarah has [tex]11 \frac{1}{4}[/tex] pounds of dog food

- Sarah is dividing this into 3 containers

1) Convert [tex]11 \frac{1}{4}[/tex] into an improper fraction

[tex]11 \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Multiply the whole number by the denominator

11 × 4 = 44

Add 44 to the numerator

44 + 1 = 45

[tex]\frac{45}{4}[/tex]

2) Divide [tex]\frac{45}{4}[/tex] by 3

[tex]\frac{45}{4} / 3[/tex]

Dividing by a number is the same as multiplying its reciprocal

[tex]= \frac{45}{4} *\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Multiply the numerators and the denominators

[tex]45*1 = 45\\4*3 = 12[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{45}{12}[/tex]

3) Convert [tex]\frac{45}{12}[/tex] into a mixed number fraction

[tex]\frac{45}{12}[/tex] ⇒ [tex]3\frac{3}{4}[/tex]

Therefore, there will be [tex]3\frac{3}{4}[/tex] pounds of food in each container.

I hope this helps!

Answer:

70 inches^2

Step-by-step explanation:

7x10=70

Answer:

We aren't going to do all your homework for you. That's why no one is answering. If you have one specific question, I can help. No one is going to do this whole assignment/homework.

A because the circle is empty and the line is going backwards