When does a female develop ova

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

At 20 weeks, a female fetus has a fully developed reproductive system, replete with six to seven million eggs.

Explanation:


Related Questions

Which of the following statements highlights the idea that mental illness can be socially constructed?
group of answer choices
O mental illness is clearly definable using the latest dsm produced by the american psychiatric association.
O an individual can determine for themselves if they have a mental illness.
O the meanings and definitions of mental illness vary over time and place.
O an individual with a mental illness may not show external signs

Answers

Option C: the meanings and definitions of mental illness vary over time and place of the following statements highlights the idea that mental illness can be socially constructed.

Conditions involving emotional, cognitive, or behavioural abnormalities are known as mental disorders. Distress and/or difficulties with social, occupational, or familial functioning can be symptoms of mental diseases.

Regardless of age, gender, location, money, social standing, race, ethnicity, religion, sexual orientation, family history, or any other facet of cultural identity, anyone can be affected by mental illness.

Although mental illness can strike anyone at any age, three-quarters of all cases start before the age of 24. Multiple forms of mental illness exist. Some, like some phobias, are modest and only minimally impact daily living. Other mental health issues can be so serious that a patient needs inpatient care. The best methods of treatment, like those for other medical conditions, depend on the ailment and how severely it affects the patient.

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____ is characterized by acute confusion and disorientation, whereas ____ is marked by deterioration in a broad range of cognitive abilities.
A. delirium, amnesia
B. amnesia, delirium
C. major neurocognitive disorder, delirium
D. delirium, major neurocognitive disorder

Answers

Delirium (d) is characterized by acute confusion and disorientation, whereas major neurocognitive disorder (d) is marked by deterioration in a broad range of cognitive abilities.

A significant decline in mental capacity is delirium. As a result, one's brain becomes clouded and they become unaware of their surroundings. Within a few days or hours, the disease typically develops quickly.

Delirium can frequently be linked to one or more causes. A severe or protracted sickness or an internal imbalance like insufficient salt are examples of factors. Infection, surgery, certain medications, alcohol or drug use or withdrawal are some potential causes of the illness.

Delirium symptoms can also be mistaken for dementia signs. In order to identify the disorder, health care professionals may use feedback from a family member or caregiver.

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FILL IN THE BLANK __________ is the macronutrient bacteria feed on i the mouth, resulting in dental carries.

Answers

Carbohydrates is the macronutrient bacteria feed on i the mouth, resulting in dental carries.

How do carbohydrates affect the body?

Your body converts carbohydrates you eat into simple sugars that are taken into the bloodstream.The pancreas secretes the hormone insulin as your blood sugar level rises.In order for sugar to be transported from of the blood to the cells, so that it can be utilized as an energy source, insulin is required.

Do carbohydrates cause weight gain?

The idea that carbohydrates cause weight gain is the biggest myth of all time.Warning: This sentence contains a spoiler.Carbs don't cause you to gain weight.Not eating enough carbohydrates causes weight gain; rather, consuming too many calories does.

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which of the following is a possible outcome of an ethics complaint? academy of nutrition and dietetics

Answers

All of the above. Dismissal of the case. Suspension of the individual's Academy membership. Revocation of the individual's CDR credential.All of the above.

What behaviors are considered unethical?

The disclosure of private information, poor working conditions, and bias are additional instances of ethical violations.Situations including bribery, forgery, & theft frequently involve criminal activity and thus are handled outside the organization, despite the fact that they are unethical.

Which is the most typical grievance made against real estate agents?

The most frequent grievance made against realtors, according to the Association of Realtors, involves fraud.The most common claim in these lawsuits is a failure to reveal property flaws.Two words best describe your solution: examination and documentation.

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What are the different changes they have experienced during adolescence socially? Explain.

Answers

Answer:

Adolescence is a period of transition in which youth experience many changes, both physical and social. Socially, adolescents develop relationships with peers, gain independence, and face issues related to identity and self-esteem.

One of the key social changes that occur during adolescence is the development of relationships with peers. As adolescents gain independence and autonomy, they become more focused on their relationships with peers, which can be a source of both support and conflict.

In addition, adolescents face issues related to identity and self-esteem. During this period, adolescents may struggle with questions about who they are, what their interests are, and what their future goals are. They may also experience feelings of inadequacy or insecurity due to comparisons to their peers and changes in their bodies.

Finally, adolescents often face pressures from society, such as expectations to conform to certain norms or values. These pressures can lead to further feelings of insecurity or confusion.

Overall, adolescence is a period of transition and growth, and can be marked by many changes and challenges, both physical and social.

Explanation:

Which health related fitness componets is the ability of muscles to exert a force one time?

Answers

Answer:

Muscular strength is the ability of the muscles to exert force over a single or maximal effort , Muscular endurance is the ability to exert a force over a period of time or repetitions.

Explanation:

african sleeping sickness is caused by the protist trypanosoma brucei. the protist is carried by the tsetse fly to humans. the tsetse fly is a .

Answers

A protozoan called Trypanosoma brucei. Tsetse flies transmit the protist from them to humans. A vector is the tsetse fly.

What do the terms "illness" and "sickness" mean?

Ailment that affects both the physical and the psyche is referred to as a "illness." Any condition that isn't necessarily a medical issue is referred to be a disease. It also involves experiencing some degree of discomfort.

How many different diseases exist?

There are four primary categories of disease: physiological illnesses, hereditary diseases (covering both genetic disorders and non-genetic hereditary diseases), deficient diseases, and infectious diseases. Another approach to categorize illnesses is according to whether they are contagious or not.

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If a neuron receives neurotransmitters that bring it close to threshold (but doesn't quite reach threshold) then which of the following will happen? O There will be a smaller, graded, action potential. O Only a subset of neurotransmitters will be released. O The cell will experience long-term potentiation O The cell will not fire at all

Answers

The correct option (b) Only a subset of neurotransmitters will be released.

The process by which signaling chemicals known as neurotransmitters are produced by the axon terminal of one neuron (the presynaptic neuron) and bind to and respond with receptors on the dendrites of another neuron (the postsynaptic neuron) a short distance away is known as neurotransmission.

In retrograde neurotransmission, the dendrites of the postsynaptic neuron release retrograde neurotransmitters (e.g., endocannabinoids; synthesized in response to an increase in intracellular calcium levels) that signal through receptors on the presynaptic neuron's axon terminal, primarily at GABAergic and glutamatergic synapses.

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which of the following is correct for an athlete who is exercising at a steady pace on flat terrain for a prolonged period of time?a. pulmonary vein has higher oxygen and lower carbon dioxide
b. a decrease in capillarization around muscle tissue
c. stroke volume gradually decreases and sub maximal heart rate gradually increases
d. on the arterial walls during ventricular contraction

Answers

Sub-maximal heart rate gradually rises as stroke volume gradually declines. a long stretch of time spent moving at a constant speed on flat ground.

Simply put, why is exercise important?

People who exercise are more likely to maintain a healthy weight and have fewer disease risks. Moderate exercise can prevent off diabetes type 2 heart disease, high blood pressure, or body weight. Exercises that build bone strength, such as leaping, running, or lifting weights, can support bone health.

Describe an exercise example.

Examples include jogging, swimming, riding, and fast strolling. Exercises for strength, often known as resistance training, make your muscles stronger. Lifting weights and utilizing a resistance band are a couple of examples.

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Which of the following would you consume with a food source of iron in order to facilitate iron absorption? Choose one answer. a. tea and a soy protein hamburger b. tomato and meat, fish, or poultry c. coffee and wheat bran muffins d. calcium supplement and whole-wheat bread

Answers

To enhance iron absorption, tomatoes should be consumed with meat, fish, or poultry that contains iron.

To aid in iron absorption, what would you eat together with an iron-rich dietary source?

Your body can better absorb iron from food if you consume foods high in vitamin C, vitamin A, or beta-carotene. Along with other foods, eating meat, fish, or poultry can be beneficial.

What meals aid iron absorption?

If you consume vitamin C-rich foods or citrus juice at the same time as high-iron foods, your body will absorb iron more quickly. Your body can more easily absorb dietary iron thanks to the vitamin C in citrus liquids like orange juice.

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How should records related to a workplace injury be maintained?

Answers

Answer:

The records must be maintained at the worksite for at least five years. Each February through April, employers must post a summary of the injuries and illnesses recorded the previous year. Also, if requested, copies of the records must be provided to current and former employees, or their representatives.

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The idea that relationships must be profitable in order to last is a tenant of

Answers

Caves of Minnesota when coming from Africa they need land and water

You and your partner are performing CPR on a 2-year-old female in cardiac arrest. During your resuscitation attempt, you should:

Answers

Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth that is equal to one third the diameter of the chest throughout your effort at CPR on a 2-year-old female cardiac arrest resuscitation.

How much CPR should two rescuers perform on an unconscious 4-year-old?

When giving rescue breaths, rescuers should halt compressions until an advanced airway is in place. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 is advised for two-rescuer CPR performed by medical professionals.

How do you administer CPR to a baby?

In the baby's chest's middle, place two fingers. Compress data at a rate of 2 compressions per second for 30 times. Every compression should lower the chest by around a third. To prevent the baby's chin from drooping, hold their head up.

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In a well-developed paragraph (5+ sentences), summarize a hospital safety issue. Discuss the potential injuries and the guidelines for preventing injury.

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Answer:

A hospital safety issue is the risk of injury to both patients and hospital staff. Common injuries that can occur include slips, trips and falls, overexertion, and needle punctures. To prevent such injuries, hospitals should assess their risk factors and develop plans to reduce them. This includes implementing safety policies, providing staff with appropriate training, and ensuring that all equipment is properly maintained. Additionally, hospital staff should be provided with appropriate safety gear, such as back supports, gloves, and non-slip shoes. Finally, it is important that hospitals track and investigate any injuries that occur so that they can be addressed and prevented in the future.

Explanation:

People in the military who hurt people because they are instructed to can be considered as psychopaths, but it still depends on the instruction. T/F

Answers

True. People in the military who hurt people because they are instructed to can be considered as psychopaths, but it still depends on the instruction.

People in the military who harm others because they are ordered to do so may be labeled psychopaths, however this depends on the instruction. If the directive is critical to the task or they are disciplining the adversaries, the military men may determine that they are acting in the best interests of their work and nation. However, if members of the military intentionally damage and murder others for no reason, they will be labeled as psychopaths because this is a natural trait of a psychopath. The individual who educates these staff may also be a psychopath since they may like torturing others.

Psychopaths are persons that are overly aggressive and frequently mistreat others as part of their personality or conduct. Psychopaths are diagnosed with Antisocial Personality Disorder in psychiatry (ASDP). It results in a pattern of aggression and manipulation of others around them.

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69) One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the
A) patellar surface of the femur.
B) pubic ramus.
C) coxal bones.
D) distal epiphysis of the femur.
E) neck of the femu

Answers

The femur (shin bone), which meets your pelvic bone, can shatter partially or completely in a hip fracture. A doctor needs to be called right away because the damage is serious.

The correct answer is A

Why is it dangerous to have a shattered femur?

Adult midshaft femur fractures can result in life-threatening complications and injuries, such as hemorrhage, internal organ damage, wound infection, fat embolism, or adult respiratory distress syndrome.

What happens if your femur breaks?

A femur fracture can result in excruciating pain, swelling, soreness, physical deformity, and frequently the inability to walk. In extreme circumstances, surgery may be necessary to guarantee appropriate healing after a femur fracture. Treatment for a femur fracture frequently entails setting or immobilizing the leg.

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Regarding therapeutic drug monitoring, which of the following statements is correct when collecting a specimen for a peak level
· Peak level is the point at which the drug is lowest in the patient's body
· Peak level is the point at which the drug is highest in the patient's body
· Peak level is tested on a blood sample that is collected immediately prior to when the next dose of the drug is given
· None of the above choices are correct

Answers

The drug's peak concentration in a patient's body is at this point. the proper words to use while taking a sample to determine a peak level.

How drugs work?

Anything that is used to treat, diagnose, or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal condition that is not food. In addition to changing mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behavior, drugs can also alter how the brain and the rest of the body function.

Does every medicine have three names?

In most cases, medications are identified by one of three types of names: trade names, which are brand names; chemical names, the most significant of which is the IUPAC name; generic or nonproprietary names, the most significant of which are international nonproprietary names (INNs).

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V
(1 point)
15 of 15
V
!!!
Mateo is a medical student learning to take a blood pressure reading. His instructor
shows him how to position the cuff on the patient's arm. He squeezes the bulb to
inflate the cuff. Mateo uses the stethoscope to listen for silence as the brachial artery
is blocked. Then he slowly releases the pressure on the cuff. Mateo begins to hear a
'whooshing' sound as the blood begins to flow through the artery. He makes a note
of the pressure at this point. It is 120. When the whooshing' sound ends, Mateo
takes note that the pressure is now at 76. How should Mateo report these results to
his instructor?

Answers

Using two numbers, blood pressure is calculated: Systolic blood pressure is the first number, and it represents the pressure in your arteries when your heart beats.

Explain about the blood pressure?

Medical services in an emergency if you experience chest discomfort, breathlessness, or any other stroke-related symptoms and your blood pressure is 180/120 mm Hg or higher. Symptoms of a stroke can include speech difficulties, vision abnormalities, or tingling or numbness.

The pressure exerted by your blood on the artery walls is known as blood pressure. Blood is pumped into the arteries every time your heart beats. Whenever your heart beats and pumps blood, your blood pressure is at its greatest.

Blood vessels (arteries) that feed blood to the brain can suffer harm from blood pressure of 140/90 or greater. coronary disease. Heart disease is the leading cause of mortality among stroke survivors and the second biggest risk factor for stroke.

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People who have schizophrenia have difficulty switching tasks or code switching. This can be seen in: a. Their high scores in the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task b. The hallucinations they have c. Enlarged ventricles in brain imaging d. Hypofrontality in brain imaging

Answers

People with schizo who have enlarged ventricles are less responsive to medications as women have been proven less likely to have enlarged ventricles with schizo.

What is volume?

Volume in the prefrontal areas of the brain actually decreases, and there are much more severe symptoms do to loss of brain matter.People who have schizophrenia have difficulty switching tasks or code switching.

Their high scores in the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task and The hallucinations they have enlarged ventricles in brain imaging as the Hypofrontality in brain imaging.

Therefore, People with schizo who have enlarged ventricles are less responsive to medications as women have been proven less likely to have enlarged ventricles with schizo.

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Suppose after a high-smog alert day in your city, a 5-year-old child with asthma, a 50-year-old male smoker with emphysema, and a 75-year-old of average health all come to the emergency room complaining of a cough and chest pain.
Which patientâs health would you be the most concerned about and why?
How do breathed-in air pollutants, such as smoke or asbestos, interfere with or worsen the respiration process in each of these scenarios?

Answers

If Due to Air pollution a 5-year-old child with asthma, a 50-year-old male smoker with emphysema, and a 75-year-old all come to the emergency room complaining then I would be the most concerned about a 5-year-old child with asthma  due to given reasons.

How does air pollution affect children with asthma?Children with asthma are affected by air pollution in the same way that they are by other causes. They aggravate the airways, causing them to enlarge and constrict, which makes breathing difficult.

Does pollution cause asthma in children?

Asthma can be brought on by high air pollution levels in both children and adults, according to research. Children who live in high-pollution areas are more at danger.

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What could you do to facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara?

What possible problems could Sara be experiencing?

What should you do about the concerns that you have for Sara?

Answers

It is important to approach the situation with sensitivity and respect for Sara's feelings and concerns. Here are some suggestions for how you might facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara:

Establish rapport: Start by introducing yourself and explaining the purpose of the physical exam. Let Sara know that you are there to help and that you want to make sure she is healthy and doing well. Ask if she has any questions or concerns before you start the exam.

Address her mood: It's possible that Sara is feeling anxious, stressed, or upset about something. Acknowledge her mood and ask if there is anything she would like to talk about. Let her know that you are there to listen and support her.

What are other way to  improve communication with Sara?

They are:

Involve her in the process: Ask Sara for her input and let her know that her feelings and preferences matter.

Use open-ended questions: Avoid yes/no questions and instead ask open-ended questions that allow Sara to express herself.

Provide breaks: If Sara seems overwhelmed or unwilling to continue, it may be helpful to take a break and come back to the exam at a later time.

As for possible problems Sara could be experiencing, it's important to consider a wide range of possibilities.

Therefore, If you have concerns about Sara's health or well-being, it is important to follow up and address those concerns. This may involve making a referral to a specialist or mental health professional, or providing her with additional support and resources as needed.

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Sara, a 14-year-old, has come to the office for her school physical. She is very remote, moody, and unwilling to answer any questions you ask her as part of her physical exam. She seems to have changed a great deal in the past year, and is thinner, more unkempt, and lethargic. You notice also that her mother is constantly badgering her and rolling her eyes in exasperation at her lack of cooperation.

What could you do to facilitate the examination and improve communication with Sara?

What possible problems could Sara be experiencing?

What should you do about the concerns that you have for Sara?

The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positives and results that are true negatives. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity, but low sensitivity?Accurately identifies the presence of diseaseAccurately identifies the absence of diseaseHas few false-positivesHas few false-negatives

Answers

Accurately identifies the absence of disease and Has few false-positives  statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity, but low sensitivity  .thus correct option (A) and (B) .

A test with high specificity accurately detects the absence of disease. The more specific a test is, the fewer false-positive results will occur. A test with high sensitivity accurately identifies the presence of disease. The more sensitive a test, the fewer false-negative results it produces.

In the case stated in this question, the immunoassay has high specificity, so it has few false-positives and will accurately detect those individuals who do not have the disease or condition that is being tested for. However, the test has low sensitivity, so it may not identify all individuals who actually have the disease; it may produce many false-negative results.

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What factors prompt individuals to become violent?
A. Stress
B. Frustration
C. Intoxication
D. Certain medical conditions

Answers

Answer:

All of the above

Explanation:

Of course, it depends on the level of each factor, but all options can prompt an individual to become violent.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a pogt client who was diagnosed with chlamydia. What
three (3) teaching points should be
ad as the care of the client?

Answers

It's critical to take all of the chlamydia treatment medicine as directed. You can be prescribed a course of azithromycin to take once day for 3 days or a week's worth of doxycycline to take.

What is azithromycin?

Azithromycin is defined as a bacterial-fighting antibiotic. It is used to treat illnesses such as pneumonia and chest infections. infections of the ear, nose, and throat as well as nose conditions including sinusitis.

The patient should receive chlamydia education. Enspire the patient to engage in safe sex. Condom use should be encouraged. Encourage the patient to continue taking his or her meds. Analyze culture results from labs. Give antibiotics as directed.

Thus, it's critical to take all of the chlamydia treatment medicine as directed. You can be prescribed a course of azithromycin to take once day for 3 days or a week's worth of doxycycline to take.

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Which of the following is NOT true about smoking?
A. Nicotine gives the user a mild rush of pleasure and energy.
B. E-cigarette vapor contains carcinogens and toxins.
OC. E-cigarettes are a FDA approved smoking cessation aid.
D. Smoking increases the risk of heart attack.

Answers

Answer: C. E-cigarettes are a FDA approved smoking cessation aid.

Explanation:

This is not true because the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has not approved e-cigarettes as a smoking cessation aid. While e-cigarettes may be marketed as a less harmful alternative to traditional cigarettes, there is limited evidence to support their effectiveness as a smoking cessation aid, and their safety and long-term health effects are not well understood.

Not looking after something or someone properly is known as:
A. Neglect
B. Abuse
C. Emotional abuse
D. Psychological aggression

Answers

Answer:

A. Neglect

Explanation:

Men tend to be focused on gaining independence and women are concerned with social relationships. What stage of adulthood does this statement describe?
According to Erikson, the primary crisis of early or young adulthood is _____________.
The medieval code of _____________ is one source of the modern emphasis on romantic love.
Today, approximately _____________ percent of married couples begin their lives in cohabitation.
_____________ is that time in a woman’s life when menstruation ceases.
(Men, Women) are more likely to suffer the impact of the empty nest syndrome.
In late adulthood, a decline in bone mass may lead to a condition called _____________.
According to the _____________ theory, the rate of aging is an inevitable result of heredity.
The process by which a body replaces neurons is called _____________.
Elizabeth Kübler-Ross identified five stages or reactions to the process of dying. List these five stages and briefly discuss her findings.

Answers

Intimacy vs. Isolation, chivarly, 82 percent, Menopause, osteoporosis, genetic theory, Neurogenesis.

How would one describe heredity?

When you talk about heredity, we're speaking about the precise ways that genes are used to transmit characteristics or traits from one generations to the next. The instructions for creating certain proteins, which are in charge of an individual's distinctive qualities, are encoded by genes.

What are some examples of heredity?

We may pass on inherited features to the next age since they are encoded in our DNA. Examples includes eye color, height, skin tone, and hair color. The differences that result from breeding may be passed down across families, increasing the likelihood that entities will survive.

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Which former 49ers of has the second most wins in Seahawks history

Answers

Answer:

Jesse Sapolu

Explanation:

Jesse Sapolu has the 2nd highest wins out of the former 49ers with 136 wins. The former 49er who had the highest amount of wins was Jerry Rice with 167 wins.

Jesse Sapolu even has the 2nd most games played out of the former 49ers with 182 games. In addition, Jerry Rice played in 249 games, the highest number of games a former 49er has played in.

Hence, the more games a player played, the more wins he has.

Jesse Sapolu former 49ers of has the second most wins in Seahawks history.

Who is Jesse Sapolu?

Manse Jesse Sapolu is famous for being a Samoan former American football player in the National Football League, who played both center and offensive guard who played his entire career for the San Francisco 49ers. Sapolu attended Farrington High School in Honolulu and the University of Hawaii.

Jesse Sapolu has the second most wins out of former 49ers with 136 wins, where the former 49er with the most wins was Jerry Rice with 167 wins. Jesse Sapolu also has the second most games played out of a former 49ers with 182 games.

Thus, Jesse Sapolu former 49ers of has the second most wins in Seahawks history.

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A cut of meat that should be cooked by moist heat is a
Select one:
a. lamb chop
b. chuck roast
c. sirloin steak
d. rib roast

Answers

Answer:

Chuck Roast

Explanation:

It's a tougher meat so it's best cooked by moist heat.

T/F for sport organizations, media relations and community relations are essentially interchangeable terms.

Answers

FALSE For sporting organizations, community relations and media relations are practically the same thing.

In sports, what exactly is an organization?

The term "sports organization" refers to any non-profit business, club, federation, union, club, or other or ga nis at ion registered in the United States that promotes or plans any athletics competition. offer a venue for discipline training and help employees stay close to one another. Employees are pushed outside of their comfort zones through sports, which also adds a sense of enjoyment to the pressures of the workplace. The value of self-control, tolerance, and collaboration is taught through friendly rivalry in sports.

What three kinds of organizations are there?

Numerous legal entities exist, including businesses, governments, non-governmental groups, political groups, international organizations, armed forces, nonprofits, partnerships, unions, and educational institutions, among others.

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If L 1and"2 are parallel lines and l1 has a slope of -2 what is the slope of l2 (3 + 4i) + (8 + 2i)Answer choices 11 - 6i5 + 12i7 + 10i11 + 6i What is the graph of the function f(x)=x The 25th term of a sequence is 121. The 80th term is 506. What is the first term The plant manager has asked you to do a cost analysis to determine when currently owned equipment should be replaced. The manager stated that under no circumstances will the existing equipment be retained longer than two more years and that once it is replaced, a contractor will provide the same service from then on at a cost of $97,000 per year. The salvage value of the currently owned equipment is estimated to be $37,000 now, $30,000 in 1 year, and $19,000 two years from now. The operating cost is expected to be $85,000 per year. Using an interest rate of 10% per year, determine when the defending equipment should be retired. Annual Worth of Defender, Year 1 Question: Plot each number on the number line below. Prepare a bank reconciliation for Cole Co. assuming the following as of May 31. Use the worksheet provided in the Ch 7 Module: 1) The company's cash account as a debit balance of: $95,250 2) The bank statement shows a balance of: $82,500 3) April 30 outstanding checks: $11,317 5) A credit memorandum was received by the bank, but not recorded by Cole Co. by May 31 a) Cash collected by the bank: $18,000 b) Collection fee deducted by bank: $45 6) Check 1115 was written and drawn for $1,350 but was erroneously entered in the accounting records as $1,050. The check was for rent. 7) May 31st daily cash sales were deposited but did not appear on the May 31 bank statement. $41,750 8) Interest earned, but not recorded: 15. Choose the best response to the sentence: Dnde est la librera? (Answers are written in English.)The bakery is on Pine St.I want a book.I am buy meat and vegetables. Which equation below represents a line with a slope of - 2/3 that passes through the point (-4.5 , 10)?A. y = - 2/3 x + 10B. y = - 2/3 x +2.7C. y = - 2/3 x + 7D. y = - 2/3 x + 13pls explain the answer if possible ^^ Ozone is three oxygen atoms bonded together. It can sometimes be smelled in the air after a thunderstorm. the smell is a result of Inez was chosen by her teacher to find the integer that has a square rootclosest to 3 without going over and write it on the board. Which correctanswer did Inez write on the board?A. 6B. 8C. 10D. 12 what are two Reasons for the Fall of the Soviet Union? Which of the following developments in the period after 1945 could most directly be used as evidence to challenge the authors assertion regarding the effects of British rule in India in the first two paragraphs?A. After achieving independence, India remained economically tied to Great Britain by joining the British Commonwealth of Nations.B. Great Britains divide-and-rule strategy in India deepened religious tensions, leading to a partition of India that resulted in millions of people dying or ending up as refugees.C. After achieving its independence, India joined the Non-Aligned Movement, a group of nation-states that refused to side with either the United States or the Soviet Union during the Cold War.D. Indian leaders adopted the policies of many other postcolonial states by using government resources and policy to guide economic development. I will give you the brain thing if you help me this correct way survey life lesson...What do you do when you really wanna fight someone but you know you gon get in trouble? Please help me best one gets brainlist and 5/5 How many times does the digit 6 appear in the numbers between 1 to 99 Im suffering PLEASE ANSWER QUICK! ANYONE WHO ANSWERS WITH A LINK OR FILE WILL BE REPORTED! BRAINLIEST GOES TO ANYONE WHO ANSWERS CORRECTLY!Javier and his friends go out to eat. The restaurant they chose automatically adds a 15% gratuity to their food bill since they are a party of 12. The total bill after the automatic 15% gratuity was $213.90. Because they received such good service, the group decided to add an extra $20 to the total bill as an additional tip.So, instead of leaving a 15% tip, Javier and his friends ended up leaving a tip that was about _% of the food bill. How does the the theme of appearance vs. reality already become apparent in these first chapters? what is 10c + 20 = 40 C =