This condition was brought on by unintentional anesthesia of the lesser palatine nerve.
How long will anesthesia last?Anesthesia-related medications might linger in your body for as long as 24 hours. After receiving sedation, regional, or anesthesia, you shouldn't drive or go back to work until the medication has left your system. As long as your doctor gives the all-clear, you must be able to get back to your regular routine after local anesthetic.
What are the risks of anesthesia?Anesthesia is generally fairly safe. Anesthesia can, in extremely rare circumstances, cause issues like irregular heart rhythms, breathing difficulties, allergic responses to the drugs administered, and even death. The hazards vary based on the type of operation or procedure, the patient's health.
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What information must be distributed to the patient when picking up a prescription?
these are potentially life threatening conditions, highly unstable conditions, or rapidly progressive conditions with the risk of serious consequences:
Emergent referral carries the potential for significant consequences.
Who shouldn't receive the Covid vaccination?You shouldn't receive an mRNA COVID-19 vaccine if you have a PEG allergy. Request the J&J/Janssen vaccination from your physician. You shouldn't receive the J&J/Janssen COVID-19 vaccine if you have a polysorbate allergy. Consult your physician about receiving an mRNA COVID-19 vaccination.
What damages the immune system?Smoking, drinking, and eating poorly can all impair your immune system. AIDS. HIV is an acquired viral infection that impairs the immune system and develops AIDS by destroying crucial white blood cells. Infections that the majority of people can fend off make HIV/AIDS patients very unwell.
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the nurse obtains a prescription for adenosine to treat a patient who is having paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. which information would the nurse use in administering the medication
Conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node is decreased by the medicine, according to the information the nurse would use to deliver it.
The complicated atrioventricular node (AVN) in the heart is responsible for several different actions.
To facilitate effective ventricular filling, the AVN delays atrial and ventricular excitation. It serves as an electrical gatekeeper between the atria and the ventricles.
A particular form of irregular cardiac rhythm or arrhythmia is known as paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). It happens when the upper chamber of the heart experiences a short circuit beat. This causes a pulse that is regular yet fast and starts and stops suddenly.
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after catching your finger in a car door, which would be considered an avulsion? responses a deep wound a deep wound a severe bruise a severe bruise a bad scrape a bad scrape a severed fingertip
A severed fingertip is regarded as an avulsion
What is injury prevention?Every physical activity should include a focus on injury prevention because it not only helps you reach your training objectives but also keeps you healthy and secure. Without appropriate preparation, performing difficult math can be harmful to your brain, just as running a marathon can be harmful to your body.
Activities to prevent, mitigate, treat, and/or reduce injury-related impairment and death were outlined as injury prevention measures.
Injury prevention is described as "actions to prevent, mitigate, treat, and/or decrease injury-related disability and death" by the National Center for Biotechnology Information (NCBI).
Program for preventing traumatic injuries. The Traumatic Injury Prevention Program (TIP) attempts to lessen and prevent acute trauma or violence-related work-related injury and mortality across all industries.
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the nurse obtains a complete family history of a client with a suspected endocrine disorder based on which rationale?
Endocrine disorders can be inherited is the correct answer for a client with endocrine disorder.
The correct answer is option B
Some endocrine conditions can be passed down via families or are inherited. Consequently, it is important to have a thorough family history. To assess the client's overall health and rule out any illnesses, a full blood count and chemical profile are run. It's crucial to learn whether a patient has an iodine allergy since diagnostic procedures could need the use of contrast agents. Endocrine issues are unrelated to an iodine allergy, though. Drug and diet histories are not linked to family history, despite being significant pieces of information. Some endocrine disorders are inherited or passed down through families. Consequently, having a complete family history is crucial.
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a severely dehydrated teenager admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia undergoes evaluation for electrolyte disturbances. the client's history includes anorexia nervosa and a 15-pound weight loss in the last month. the client is 5 feet 5 inches tall and weighs 75 pounds. which is the priority nursing intervention?
Initiating total parenteral nutrition as ordered is the priority nursing intervention.
what is total prentral nutrition?
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a method of feeding that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract. A special formula given through a vein provides most of the nutrients the body needs. The method is used when someone can't or shouldn't receive feedings or fluids by mouth.
Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) patients indicated that they experienced hunger even though they received adequate calories for energy balance
A person may need TPN because of a gastrointestinal (GI) disorder that severly limits the ability of their digestive tract.
A person may not be able to swallow food, move the food through the digestive system, or absorb nutrients from the food.
Severely malnourished clients may require total parenteral nutrition, tube feedings, or hyperalimentation to receive adequate nutritional intake. Medical management focuses on weight restoration, nutritional rehabilitation, rehydration, and correction of electrolyte imbalance
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research shows that disordered eating behaviors are twice as common among young people with type 1 diabetes compared to youth without diabetes. a pattern of disordered eating commonly called diabulimia involves multiple choice purging excess calories by self-induced vomiting. overdosing on insulin to induce weight loss. intentionally skipping insulin doses to avoid weight gain. severely restricting carbohydrate intake to avoid weight gain.
Research shows that disordered eating behaviors are twice as common among young people with type 1 diabetes compared to youth without diabetes. a pattern of disordered eating commonly called diabulimia involves intentionally skipping insulin doses to avoid weight.
The correct option is intentionally skipping insulin doses to avoid weight
What is diabulimia?Diabulimia is described as a serious and life-threatening eating disorder that can affect people with Type 1 diabetes which involves restricting or limiting insulin doses in order to lose weight.
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a coal miner has developed a dry cough with difficulty breathing . what is the most likely condition that this individual has?
the nurse assures the spouse that the physicians and staff will make every effort to keep the client comfortable. after making sure the client and her spouse are settled and do not require anything further at this time, what action should the nurse take?
After confirming that the patient and his/her spouse are calm and have no further needs at this time, the nurse should inform the HCP that the spouse wants euthanasia for the client.
What is an HCP in medicine and its example?Health Care Professionals (HCPs) are all paid workers involved in health care who may be directly or indirectly exposed to infectious agents, including patients or bodily substances (such as blood, tissue and certain bodily fluids) and contaminated medical supplies, medical equipment and devices.HCP can include a wide range of individual titles including: Ambulance service personnel, nurse, nursing assistant, doctor, engineer, therapist, phlebotomist, pharmacist. What is the purpose of HCPs?HCP is run by physicians who help physicians maintain their independence so that they can provide their patients with the best possible care. HCP provides clinical and administrative support so your doctor can focus on you, the patient.
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a client is supine with the head of the examination table at a 30-degree angle. what should the nurse assess at this time?
in a physical exam in supine, the nurse assesses the client's anterior neck, carotid arteries, heart and lung sounds, and breasts before helping the client sit up to examine the back.
what is dorsal decubitus?Those who are starting studies in Anatomy soon come across this term. This is the most natural position for the patient at rest. This is so because it allows the support of the back and limbs in a comfortable way. In addition to not requiring effort and serving as a basis for other important anatomical positions, such as Trendelenburg.
How is the supine position?The supine position places the patient lying on the back, with the head slightly above the level of the feet, arms and legs extended. the person is lying down. And “dorsal” derives from the study of the four anatomical planes: median, sagittal, transverse and frontal.
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Essential fat comprises ______% of women's body weight. 8-12. True or false: Body mass index (BMI) measures body fat.
Essential fat comprises 8-12% of women's body weight. Body mass index (BMI) measures body fat is false.
For men, essential body fat accounts for about 3% of body mass, while it accounts for between 8 to 12% for women. Due to childbearing and hormonal functions, women are thought to have more essential body fat than men.
One kind of screening tool is BMI. Measuring the person's size is helpful. The body mass index can be used to predict conditions like cancer, diabetes, heart disease, and difficulty breathing. Although BMI has a moderate correlation with more precise measures of body fat 1,2,3, it does not directly measure body fat. Additionally, these more direct measures of body fatness 4,5,6,7,8,9 appear to be as strongly correlated with various metabolic and disease outcomes as BMI.
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a patient's gradual decline in activity tolerance and increased shortness of breath have prompted her health care provider to assess the structure and size of her heart. which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to yield these assessment data?
The health care provider had assessed the structure and size of the patient’s heart, due to a gradual decline in activity tolerance and increased shortness of breath. The diagnostic test most likely to yield the assessment data is: echocardiography.
What is echocardiography?Echocardiography is a diagnostic test to check how the patient’s valves and heart chambers pump blood through the heart. The echocardiogram uses ultrasound technology to check the blood flow and electrodes to check the heart rhythm. To use an echocardiogram, the physician needs to place a transducer on the chest and aim it at heart. The transducer will transmit and receive the sound waves by turning them into a picture.
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oliver sacks pioneered treatment of patients with movement disorders, similar to parkinson's, by using a drug that closely resembles which neurotransmitter?
Oliver sacks pioneered treatment of patients with movement disorders, similar to Parkinson's, by using a drug that closely resembles the neurotransmitter dopamine.
Parkinson's is a progressive disease of the central nervous system. The symptoms may begin with light tremors that can lead to serious stiffness and disability to move. The cause of the disease is the loss of nerve cells. The disease can only be controlled with medication but not permanently treated.
Dopamine is a transmitter and a hormone that plays important role in functions like movement, memory and pleasurable reward and motivation. It is chemically of the catecholamine and phenethylamine families.
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a client with psychosis is prescribed quetiapine 400 mg by mouth daily in two divided doses. the pharmacy dispenses 200-mg tablets. how many tablets should the nurse administer with each dose? record your answer using a whole number.
Only one tablet should the nurse administer with each dose.
How does a person act with psychosis?People who experience psychosis start to lose touch with reality. This may entail having hallucinations, which involve seeing or hearing things that others cannot see or hear, and holding beliefs that are not true.Numerous factors, such as physical sickness or damage, may cause psychosis. If you have a high fever, a head injury, or lead or mercury poisoning, you can see or hear things. You might also have hallucinations or delusions if you have Parkinson's disease or Alzheimer's disease.There are two primary signs of psychosis:When a person has hallucinations, they may hear, see, smell, or taste things that may not actually exist but may seem extremely real to the person experiencing them. Hearing voices is a typical hallucination. Delusions are people's strong beliefs that are not held by others. One typical delusion is the idea that they are the target of a conspiracy.Learn more about psychosis refer :
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a nurse is reviewing the policies of a facility related to bonding and attachment with newborns. which practice would the nurse identify as needing to be changed
The nurse is comparing a nurse is reviewing the policies of a facility related to bonding and attachment with newborns like a frog to the nurse.
What is nurse?Nurse is defined as a person who has received training in caring for the sick and injured. Whether a person is unwell or not, and regardless of where they are, nursing entails providing independent and team-based care to people of all ages, families, groups, and communities.
In the first hour following delivery, skin-to-skin contact is frequently where bonding starts. The delivery room professionals will now lay your newborn child directly on your chest. The first time that you and your baby feel, hear, and smell each other is as you lie together.
Thus, the nurse is comparing a nurse is reviewing the policies of a facility related to bonding and attachment with newborns like a frog to the nurse.
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the childs parent appears indifferent to the child's physical, emotional, or medical needs and seems to provoke seizured episodes by harsh verbal exchanges with the child. where would the nurse direct a referral?
The nurse would direct a referral to child protective services.
Every state has laws requiring the reporting of child abuse to the appropriate authorities. The state delegated this obligation to an appropriate neighborhood agency, such Child Protective Services. A member of the organization's staff investigates allegations of child abuse and offers recommendations to protect the child's wellbeing. The clinic offers the patient medical care, while other groups address child abuse and other social difficulties. The hospital is not likely to admit the child if there isn't an immediate medical emergency.
If you have a strong suspicion that abuse or neglect has occurred, call the Hotline immediately.
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a patient with a panic disorder has been prescribed a benzodiazepine medication. which risk would the nurse emphasize as being associated with using this medication
The risk which the nurse would emphasize as being associated with using this medication will be withdrawal symptoms. Thus, the correct option is B.
What are withdrawal symptoms?Abnormal physical or psychological features which occur due to abrupt discontinuation of a drug that has the capability of producing physical dependence in an organism. For example, some of the common opiates withdrawal symptoms include sweating, goosebumps, vomiting, anxiety, insomnia, and muscle pain.
Benzodiazepine therapy can lead to dependence and addiction. The withdrawal symptoms occur once this medication is discontinued. Withdrawal symptoms of benzodiazepine include anxiety, irritability and insomnia, and can be difficult to differentiate between the withdrawal symptoms and the recurrence of anxiety.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A client with a panic disorder has been prescribed a benzodiazepine medication. Which of the following would the nurse emphasize as a risk associated with using this medication?
A. Dietary restrictions
B. Withdrawal symptoms
C. Agitation
D. Fecal impaction
magnesium is related to vitamin d in that multiple choice magnesium is required for the synthesis of vitamin d in the skin. magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of vitamin d. magnesium is required for the activation of vitamin d in the liver. all of these choices are correct.
Magnesium is related to vitamin d in that magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of vitamin. Thus, option C is correct.
What are the various functions of vitamin D in the body?The various functions of vitamin D in the body are that the Vitamin D increases absorption of calcium in the small intestines and magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of vitamin as well as magnesium is required for the activation of vitamin d in the liver.
1, 2- 5 Dihydroxyvitamin D3 (1,25(OH)2D3), which has the hormonally active form of vitamin D, is responsible for influencing the active absorption of calcium in the intestines and active form involves transcellular pathways.
Therefore, Magnesium is related to vitamin d in that magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of vitamin. Thus, option C is correct.
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All of the following groups are at increased risk of testicular cancer EXCEPT:
Circumcised males.
White males.
Men with undescended testicles.
Men with a family history of it.
Answer:
white male
Explanation:
your patient has been in the hospital with covid-19 for 12 hours. they have a history of asthma, and heroin and methamphetamine use. while administering their scheduled inhaler and assessing their vital signs you notice they cannot stop yawning and are a little restless. your next step will be:
While administering their scheduled inhaler and assessing their vital signs you notice they cannot stop yawning and are a little restless the next step would be because of COVID-19 which replied to diet D complement, multi-diet and mineral complement and yoga therapy.
Coronavirus Disease (COVID-19) has imposed numerous regulations on humans of all corporations together with kids. This uncommon life-style can also additionally bring about the improved occurrence of a few ailments in kids.
We document a case of immoderate yawning in a baby at some stage in the duration of lock-down because of COVID-19 which replied to diet D complement, multi-diet and mineral complement and yoga therapy.
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In cross section, the __________ matter of the spinal cord looks like a butterfly or the letter h.
In the cross-section, the gray matter of the spinal cord looks like a butterfly or the letter H. Those sections are called horns.
What are the horns in the spinal cord?There are 3 horns of the spinal cord. The three of them look like a butterfly or the letter H:
The posterior horn is responsible for sensory processing and receives light, touch, and vibration signals.The anterior horn is responsible for sending out motor signals to the skeletal muscles.The lateral horn contains the neuronal cell bodies of the sympathetic and autonomic motor neurons for our nervous system.Learn more about the spinal cord here https://brainly.com/question/29346840
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client was prescribed morphine iv 0.05mg/kg/dose now and every 2 hours as needed for moderate to severe pain. morphine is available in parenteral dose of 2mg/ml. how much medication should the nurse draw up for administration? (patient weighs 140 lbs on admission). (enter the numerical value only. if rounding is necessary, round to the nearest tenth.)
The dosage of morphine IV that the nurse should draw up for administration to the patient, who was prescribed 0.05 mg/kg/dose every 2 hours as needed for moderate to severe pain, is 1.6 mL.
How is the amount of dosage that the nurse should draw up calculated?Step one, convert the patient's weight into kilograms:
[tex]\frac{140 lbs }{2.2kg}[/tex] = 63 kgStep two, calculate the dose the patient needs based on their body weight in kg and the prescribed number of doses:
63 kg x 0.05 mg = 3.15 mgStep three, divide the above calculation by the amount of IV morphine that is available parenterally:
[tex]\frac{3.15 mg}{2mL}[/tex] = 1.575 mLStep four, round 1.575 mL to the nearest tenth, which is 1.6 mL.
Morphine is a powerful painkiller. Its used for centuries in many forms and worked pretty effectively on many types of pain, however it is most commonly used for severe, chronic cancer pain.
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which hypothesis would a nurse generate for a patient who has acute pain and muscle cramps and a serum sodium level of 140 meq/l, potassium of 2.8 meq/l, calcium of 4.5 meq/l, and magnesium of 2.0 meq/l? hypocalcemia hyponatremia hypomagnesemia hypokalemia
The hypothesis which a nurse would generate for a patient who has acute pain and muscle cramps and a serum sodium level of 140 meq/l, potassium of 2.8 meq/l, calcium of 4.5 meq/l, and magnesium of 2.0 meq/l is hypokalemia and is denoted as option D.
What is Hypokalemia?This is referred to as a medical condition in which there is low blood potassium levels in the body.
The normal potassium range is between 3.5 to 5.2 mEq/L while anything below that value signifies hypokalemia which is why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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a client is experiencing the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (adh) secretion. when explaining this disorder to the client and family, the nurse recalls that adh works to reabsorb water in which parts of the nephron
Adh functions to reabsorb water in the distal convoluted tubule as well as the collecting duct of the nephron, the nurse recalls while describing inappropriate antidiuretic hormone condition to the client and family.
ADH is necessary for water reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron. The hormone makes the membranes more permeable, which makes it easier for water to move down the concentration gradient.
While filtering, the glomerulus does not reabsorb. Urine collection is done via the calyces. Without the aid of ADH, the proximal tubule including the ring of Henle reabsorb water.
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what is the substance required to cleave the vector dna during recombinant dna technology?
cleaving the DNA with a RESTRICTION ENZYME
The first step in the development of recombinant DNA technology was the characterization of restriction endonucleases.
What is DNA?
DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is a complicated molecule that carries all of the information required to construct and maintain an organism. DNA is found in the cells of all living things. In fact, practically every cell in a multicellular creature contains the entirety of the organism's DNA.
However, DNA does more than just specify the structure and function of living things; it is also the primary unit of heredity in all organisms. To put it another way, when organisms reproduce, a portion of their DNA is passed down to their offspring.
DNA stores information as a code composed of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA is made up of approximately 3 billion bases, with more than 99 percent of those bases being the same in all humans. The order, or sequence, of these bases defines the information accessible for constructing and maintaining an organism, in the same way that letters of the alphabet occur in a specific order to make words and phrases.
The characterization of restriction endonucleases—enzymes that break DNA at specified sequences—was the initial step in the creation of recombinant DNA technology. These enzymes were discovered in bacteria, where they appear to protect the cell from the introduction of foreign DNA (e.g., from a virus).
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replacement of thyroxine is potentially dangerous in the setting of which a. b. c. d. oxytocin? gh deficiency hyperprolactinemia perimenopausal state acth deficiency
It is setting to ACTH deficiency.
Thyroxine is medicine used to treat an underactive thyroid gland, which is hypothyroidism.
It works by replacing thyroid hormones and relieves the symptoms of hypothyroidism.
Same as replacement of thyroxine can cause hypothyroidism, ACTH deficiency causes hypoadrenalism
The ACTH in the blood leads to a reduction in the secretion of adrenal hormones, resulting in adrenal insufficiency.
It can be congenital or acquired
Symptoms of ACTH deficit leads to
1. Weight loss
2. Anorexia
3. Hypotension
4. Nausea and vomiting
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a client was admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia and exhibiting behaviors of hostility, paranoia, and isolation. the student nurse discussed with the nurse what the most therapeutic approach to take with the client would be. which would indicate to the nurse that the student understands the best approach?
Respecting the client's need for personal space and avoiding physical contact would be the best approach that the nurse and student can understand.
What is schizophrenia?
Paranoid schizophrenia is characterized by predominantly positive symptoms of schizophrenia, including delusions and hallucinations. These debilitating symptoms blur the line between what is real and what isn't, making it difficult for the person to lead a typical life.
What is a schizophrenic like?
Someone experiencing a paranoid delusion may believe they're being harassed or persecuted. They may believe they're being chased, followed, watched, plotted against or poisoned, often by a family member or friend. Some people who experience delusions find different meanings in everyday events or occurrences.
What are 3 treatments for schizophrenia?
Individual therapy: Psychotherapy may help to normalize thought patterns.Social skills training: This focuses on improving communication and social interactions and improving the ability to participate in daily activities.Family therapy: Vocational rehabilitation and supported employment.
Thus, respecting the client's need for personal space and avoiding physical contact is the approach.
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suppose you are evaluating an article on the relationship between sleep disorders and general health. what type of organization would you expect to see? select one: a. comparative b. cause and effect c. chronological d. scientific
Cause and effect organizations are the kind of thing one would expect to see. Therefore option B is the correct response.
What are sleep disorders?Common sleep disorders like insomnia, fretful legs syndrome, narcolepsy, and sleep apnea can all have a significant impact on your safety and relationships, as well as the development of diabetes and heart disease. Your mental and physical health, as well as your weight, may all be badly impacted by these illnesses, which can also affect your thinking.Among other things, physical disorders can disrupt sleep (for example, chronic pain from arthritis, headaches, fibromyalgia) medical issues (for example, sleep apnea) Psychiatric disorders (for example, depression and anxiety disorders).Sleep apnea is a potentially hazardous sleep disorder that affects a person's ability to breathe while they are asleep. Untreated sleep apnea patients frequently stop breathing while they are asleep. The two types are obstructive and central sleep apnea.To Learn more About Cause and effect Refer To:
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the hypopharynx and oropharynx are synonymous terms.
a. true
b. false
It is false that the hypopharynx and oropharynx are synonymous terms.
The hypopharynx is that the lower a part of the throat (pharynx) that lies right behind your voice box. The hypopharynx is that the entrance into the muscular structure (the tube that connects your throat to your stomach). After you swallow foods and liquids, they tolerate your throat to your abdomen.
Oropharynx is the a part of the throat at the rear of the mouth behind the oral fissure. It includes the rear third of the tongue, the taste bud, the aspect and back walls of the throat, and also the tonsils. It permits air, food and fluid to tolerate.
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the nurse is caring for an adult client who suffers from a spinal cord hemisection due to a tumor. the client is unable to feel pain or temperature changes below the level of the tumor. what other symptoms should the nurse teach the family to expect the client to experience?
Loss of voluntary motor function and loss of pain and temperature sensation are expected symptoms of spinal cord hemisection.
What is spinal cord hemisection?
The specific syndrome of ipsilateral paralysis and contralateral pain and temperature loss below the site of the lesion, known as the Brown-Séquard syndrome, is brought on by spinal cord hemisection. Ipsilateral vibration and proprioceptive loss also take place, albeit they are frequently less obvious clinically (on the same side as the motor symptoms). At the level of the transection, the ipsilateral anterior horn cells and dorsal roots are also impacted by the whole syndrome
As a result, a complete hemispheric lesion on the right side of the spinal cord causes paralysis with increased reflexes (after the acute phase) and the loss of joint position and vibration sense on the right side below the level of the lesion, as well as pain and temperature sense on the left.
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