will give brainliest to whoever helps

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Paul used the following identities:

Anthony used the identity:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the first ine make sense to me

if not right sorry

Answer:

0.5in and 2in

Step-by-step explanation:

It is the answer

rhombus opposite sides are equal.

So, CD = 15

Answer:

you need the distance they're running and the pace they are running at.

Answer:

675$

Step-by-step explanation:

got it right

[tex]g(x) = 4 |x| = x = 0[/tex]

Answer:

A' 2,2

B' 3, -1

C' -1,0

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you're translating it by -2, 3, you're basically subtracting 2 from the x value and adding 3 to the y value.

A = 4, -1

A' = 2, 2

B = 5, -4

B' = 3, -1

C = 1, -3

C' = -1, 0

Step-by-step explanation:

these are both quadratic curves, parabolas, and factorization means to express the 2 terms as multiplication with each other, so that the result would be the simplified function. in other words : find the two factor terms that make the whole function.

the advantage of factorization is to see the 2 solutions for y=0 right away.

the general form is

y = (x + a)(x + b)

and the y=0 solutions are then simply x = -a and x = -b.

in example 3 we have 2 different y=0 solutions, seemingly at x = 1 and x = 5.

that makes the factorization :

y = (x - 1)(x - 5)

when x becomes one of these values, the corresponding factor becomes 0 and therefore y becomes 0 too.

in example 4 we have only one y=0 solution (or so it seems; in fact there are still formally 2 solutions, they are just equal).

it is seemingly at x = -2.

since both solutions are equal, we have also two equal factors.

that makes the factorization

y = (x + 2)(x + 2) = (x + 2)²

Answer:

about 20 cents

Step-by-step explanation:

#Shop A

Pack of 70pens:-

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 7(2.30)=16.10[/tex]

#2

Pack of 70

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 14(1.60)=20.80[/tex]

But you get half price

Difference:-

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 16.10-10.40=5.70\£[/tex]

Answer:

58 seconds.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since one minute equals 60 seconds, Carlos took 63 seconds.

Orlando ran in 63 seconds - 5 seconds, which is equal to 58 seconds.

Answer:

Three tenths/ 3/10

Step-by-step explanation:

1/5 divided by 2/3 is 0.3 which is equal to 3/10

Answer:

A.

Step-by-step explanation:

You can see that the rate of change of function A is 3. because that's the slope (M) in y=mx+b

5 is slope for B because unit rate is 5 ( 1 to 3 change is +10 so unit rate is 5)

The assumptions required for making inference about a population using sample data include ;

Learn more : https://brainly.com/question/25609474

Answer: y = 3/5x + 6

Step-by-step explanation: Slope intercept form is y = mx + b

We must convert your problem into this.

3x - 5y = -30

-5y = -30 - 3x

-5y = -3x - 30

y = (-3x - 30)/-5

y = 3/5x + 6

Would appreciate brainly <3

It is 1.39 standard devaitions away from the mean.

Since the mean x = 51.84 inches and the standard deviation, σ = 8.05 inches.

The amount of rainfall last year was X = 63 inches.

The difference between X and the mean x is d = X - x

= 63 - 51.84 in

= 11.16 in

To find the number of standard devaitions X is from the mean, n, we divide d by the standard deviation,σ.

So, n = d/σ

= 11.16 in/8.05 in

= 1.39

So, it is 1.39 standard devaitions away from the mean.

Learn more about number of standard deviations here:

https://brainly.com/question/24254824

Answer: 36

Step-by-step explanation: 10^2 is 100 and 4^3 is 64, and 100-64=36

Answer:

40 students earned a B on this paper.

40%×80=32 people who chose action as their fav.

Answer:

A- 8x+9

Step-by-step explanation:

------------------------------------------

5x + 3 (x + 2) + 3

5x + 3x + 6 + 3

8x + 6 + 3

8x + 9

<3

Answer: Disagree. 1 in 8 bars are cinnamon.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are a total of 8 bars in the pack. Cinnamon is 1 of the 8. Therefore, for every 8 bars, one is cinnamon.

Answer:

1.25 Hours (1 hour & 15 minutes)

Step-by-step explanation:

14x = 5 + 10x  

Subtract 10x from both sides

4x = 5

Divide by 4 on both sides

x = 1.25

It will take 1 hour and 15 minutes (1.25 hours) for Mrs. Penn and Mrs. Smith to be paid the same amount.

Answer:

2.57×104= 267.28

2.57×10-1= 24.7

Answer:

2.57x10^4 is 100,000 Greater that 2.57x10^-1

Step-by-step explanation:

2.57x10^4 has a power by 4 which means

10^4 = 10,000

and 2.57x10^-1 has a power by -1 which means

10^-1 = 0,1

therefore 2.57x10^4 is 100,000 Greater that 2.57x10^-1

Answer:

i thank it h

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Well your answer is (F)

Step-by-step explanation:

?

Answer:

21.4m

Step-by-step explanation:

Circumference : x diameter

is approximately 3.142

3.142 x 6.8 = 21.3656

Nearest tenth = 21.4m

Answer:

[tex]25\frac{3}{2} =26.5[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

This mixed number can be separated into 25 and [tex]\frac{3}{2}[/tex]. Convert the fraction to a decimal by plugging it into a calculator, then add 25.

If you meant what whole number is equivalent, that does not exist.

Answer:

Least to greatest

0.75 , 1.25 , -1. 08 , -0. 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope my answer helps you

Answer:

b) quotient

Step-by-step explanation:

divisor is the number/value you are dividing with.

A remainder is a number that remains after you divide.

A factor is a number that can divide into a number or numbers without leaving a remainder

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a:

a) 0.3526 = 35.26% probability of rejecting a lot that is 3% defective.

b) 0.4295 = 42.95% probability of accepting a lot that is 4% defective.

For each device, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of a device being defective is independent of any other device, hence the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem, the sample has 100 units, hence [tex]n = 100[/tex].

Item a:

3% of the pieces are defective, hence [tex]p = 0.03[/tex].

The probability is:

[tex]P(X \geq 4) = 1 - P(X < 4)[/tex]

In which:

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)[/tex]

Hence:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{100,0}.(0.03)^{0}.(0.97)^{100} = 0.0476[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{100,1}.(0.03)^{1}.(0.97)^{99} = 0.1471[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{100,2}.(0.03)^{2}.(0.97)^{98} = 0.2252[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{100,3}.(0.03)^{3}.(0.97)^{97} = 0.2275[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.0476 + 0.1471 + 0.2252 + 0.2275 = 0.6474[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 4) = 1 - P(X < 4) = 1 - 0.6474 = 0.3526[/tex]

0.3526 = 35.26% probability of rejecting a lot that is 3% defective.

Item b:

4% of the pieces are defective, hence [tex]p = 0.04[/tex].

Lot is accepted if less than 4 units are defective, hence:

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{100,0}.(0.04)^{0}.(0.96)^{100} = 0.0169[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{100,1}.(0.04)^{1}.(0.96)^{99} = 0.0703[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{100,2}.(0.04)^{2}.(0.96)^{98} = 0.1450[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{100,3}.(0.04)^{3}.(0.96)^{97} = 0.1973[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.0169 + 0.0703 + 0.1450 + 0.1973 = 0.4295[/tex]

0.4295 = 42.95% probability of accepting a lot that is 4% defective.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24863377