50 points! Help (Vectors)

Answer:

2nd

Step-by-step explanation:

The second one

We have that for the Question, it can be said that

The amount of money Janine will have to accumulate in her company’s 401(k) plan over the next 40 years is

From the question we are told

Janine is 25 and has a good job at a biotechnology company.

Janine estimates that she will need $875,000 in her total retirement nest egg by the time she is 65 in order to have retirement income of $20,000 a year. (She expects that Social Security will pay her an additional $15,000 a year.) She currently has $5,000 in an IRA, an important part of her retirement nest egg. She believes her IRA will grow at an annual rate of 8 percent, and she plans to leave it untouched until she retires at age 65. How much money will Janine have to accumulate in her company’s 401(k) plan over the next 40 years in order to reach her retirement income goal? Use Exhibit 1-A.

Generally the equation for the IRA Amount  at Retirement  is mathematically given as

IAR= 5000 * 1.08^(40)

=  108622.6

Since estimate is at

$875,000  

Therefore

Accumulation in 401,000 = 875000 - 108622.6

Accumulation in 401,000 = 766377.4

Hence

The amount of money  Janine will have to accumulate in her company’s 401(k) plan over the next 40 years is

$ 766377.4

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Answer:

5.4*0.08=0.432 or

43 cents

Hope This Helps!!!

Answer:

7x6-2=40

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

7k -2 =

7(6) - 2

42 -2

40

You are welcome!

Kayden Kohl

8th Grade Student

Answer:

The remander is 1 hope that helps

Step-by-step explanation:

The remainder is 1 when the expression (2021)²⁰²² is divided by 337.

The amount that remains after division is known as the Remainder. The result of division is a value if a number (dividend) cannot be divided entirely by another number (divisor). The remainder is what is known as this amount.

The given term is,

(2021)²⁰²²

To find the remainder when (2021)²⁰²² is divided by 337,

Firstly, divide 2021 from 337.

The remainder of 2021/337 is 336.

Or the remainder can be written in negative as -1.

So the remainder of (2021)²⁰²² when divided by 337,

(2021)²⁰²²/337 = (-1)²⁰²² = 1

The required remainder of (2021)²⁰²² when divided by 337 is 1.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

a maximum or minimum occurs where the derivative equals zero

f(x) = -2x² + 14x - 10

f'(x) = -4x + 14

0 = -4x + 14

4x = 14

x = 3.5

f(3.5) = -2(3.5)² + 14(3.5) - 10 = 14.5

Answer:no they are not

Step-by-step explanation:

As all angles are 60∘ each and given all sides are equal then it can be said as congruent.

Answer:

no

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A) Translation

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the triangle didn't turn at all it isn't rotation.

Since the triangle wasn't flipped over a line it isn't reflection.

Since the size of the triangle wasn't changed it isn't dilation.

That leaves translation.

Answer: ???

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

W4 is our new scaled side

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at scale factor like this and it helps everytime so if it doesn’t help you there different methods.

3/2 has a larger number as a numerator so that means that the shape being scaled will get larger and if the number is smaller than denominator then the scaled figure will get smaller :3

In our case it gets bigger

do 16 divided by 2 which gives us 8 then times that by 3 to get 24

now thats how I solved this problem but if that not how you did it then you can do it your way :3

HOOE THIS HEEELPPED :DDD

Answer:

90081???

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.99999984 = 99.999984% probability that at least one household has a television set.

For each household, there are only two possible outcomes, either it has at least one television set, or it does not. The probability of a household having at least one television set is independent of any other household, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem:

The probability that at least one household has a television set is:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

In which:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{4,0}.(0.98)^{0}.(0.02)^{4} = 0.00000016[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.00000016 = 0.99999984 [/tex]

0.99999984 = 99.999984% probability that at least one household has a television set.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

Answer:

y^(1/10).

Step-by-step explanation:

(1/√y)^-1/5

= (y ^-1/2)^-1/5

= y^(-1/2 * -1/5)

= y^(1/10)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(1/sqrt(y) )^-1/5      To get rid of the minus, turn the sqrt(y) over.

(sqrt(y))^1/5           Represent the square root of y as y^(1/2)

(y^(1/2))^(1/5)         Multiply the powers

y ^ 1/10

Answer:

(6,0) (-6,0)

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry kung mali pero sana makahelp

Answer:

a) A. Arithmetic Sequence

b) A. Arithmetic Sequence

c) A. Arithmetic Sequence

d) A. Arithmetic Sequence

e) B. Not an arithmetic Sequence

Step-by-step explanation:

if there is a common difference it is arithmetic, if there not then it is not arithmetic.

a) d= 3

b)d=3

c)d=2

d)d=-4

e)not arithmetic

Given :

f(x) = 3x-7 , when x>0

and f(x) = -2x+3 x<0

as 6 is greater than 0, we get that :

f(6) = 3(6)-7

=> f(6) = 18-7

=> f(6) = 11

hence, option a) is correct

The value of f(6) is 11 using the equation f(x)= 3x-7.

To find the value of f(6), we need to determine which condition applies to x = 6. Since x = 6 is greater than 0, we will use the equation f(x) = 3x - 7.

Substituting x = 6 into the equation:

f(6) = 3(6) - 7

f(6) = 18 - 7

f(6) = 11

Therefore, the value of f(6) is 11.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given function:

Zero of the function:

Vertical asymptotes:

Horizontal asymptotes:

The graph with asymptotes and zero is attached

Answer:

It can't get more simple than that (*nose growing*)

Step-by-step explanation:

50% of 35 means 35 is 100% right? 50 is half of 100. So 50% of 35 will be half of 35, agree? So you multiply by crossing

35 = 100%

x = 50%

100 * x = 35 * 50 (do this math, you can multiply 35 by 5 then add 0)

100x = 1750

x = 1750 / 100

x = 17,5

Is 17,5 half of 35? You could have also done 35 / 2. It would be the same result because 50% is an easy percentage to work with.

Answer: 10,500 hits

Step-by-step explanation:

I WANT BIG BRAIN! I WANT BIG BRAIN AHAHHHHHHH!!!!!!!

ok there are a number of ways to go about this

it is unclear whether or not the YT content creator will get one pound for 500 hits

i honestly dont know but i am going to assume it will

1000 times 20 (we are plugging in a test variable, 20, here)

so lets say we have 20,000 hits

lets divide that by 1000 and we get 20. 20 times 2 is 40 pounds so obviously thats too much

lets try 1000 times 10

so we have 10 times 2 and thats 20 pounds. we are closer

10,500 hits

(i put in 500 because half of 1000 is 500 and that will give you one pound instead of two)

Answer:

11z/4+3/10

Step-by-step explanation:

Distribute first then combine like terms.

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

sets cannot have repeated elements. So this set only has the letters B, A, L, D, E, R which means the cardinality is 6

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: [/tex]

[tex] = 3a ^{4} \times (7 {a}^{5} - 2)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]21 {a}^{9} - 6 {a}^{4} [/tex]

[tex] = 3 {a}^{4} \times (7 {a}^{5} - 2)[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: [/tex]

4. EA ≅ MA

In ΔTAE and ΔTAM,

TE = TM (Given)

∠ETA = ∠MTA (Given)

TA = TA (Common)

∴ ΔTAE ≅ ΔTAM

∴ EA = MA

Hope it helps you....

Please mark as brainlliest

Answer:

135/45 =3

180=45 multiple by 4

180/60=3

240=60 multiple by 4

It is divide.by 3 and multiply by 4

hence =80 multiply 4= 320

Hi small cats and cats and dogs have a great experience with the evening of the evening of 6th century the morning of this

Answer:

10.9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

54.7 yards

Step-by-step explanation:

1 meter = 1.094 yards

50 meters = 54.7 yards

Answer:

I would say muscular

Step-by-step explanation:

none of these are really wrong, but muscular intelligence should be bodily intelligence

Answer:

C. 11

Step-by-step explanation:

This can be rewritten as

23 - 12

This is equal to 11.

Answer:

11

Step-by-step explanation:

-12 + 23 = 11

since the 12 is negative subtract it from 23 and you get 11 as your answer